ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Ebola viruses need to be handled in which of the following biosafety levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BSL4. Ebola viruses are highly infectious and pose a high risk to laboratory workers. BSL4 facilities are designed to handle agents that pose a severe threat to human health and have no available vaccines or treatments. These facilities have strict guidelines for handling infectious agents, including full-body suits, negative air pressure, and decontamination processes to prevent any possible exposure. BSL1, BSL2, and BSL3 are not adequate for handling Ebola viruses due to their lower levels of containment and safety measures.
Question 2 of 9
Etiological factors for the infectious diseases are often microorganisms with various ultrastructure. Which of the following microorganism groups relates to the eukaryotes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protozoa. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms, meaning they have a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukaryotes have complex cellular structures that include a nucleus, mitochondria, and other organelles. Therefore, protozoa are eukaryotes. Viruses (B) are not considered cells and lack cellular structures. Viroids (C) are smaller infectious agents that consist of only RNA, lacking the cellular structure of eukaryotes. Prions (D) are infectious proteins and do not possess cellular structures like eukaryotes. So, protozoa are the only choice that relates to eukaryotes due to their cellular structure.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of skin infections and toxic shock syndrome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacteria is known to cause skin infections and toxic shock syndrome due to its ability to produce toxins that can lead to severe symptoms. Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found on the skin and can enter the body through cuts or wounds, causing infections. Other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa typically causes infections in immunocompromised individuals, Micrococcus luteus is a common skin bacterium that is not typically pathogenic, and Propionibacterium acnes is associated with acne, not skin infections or toxic shock syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
A smear of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms with pseudopodia and ingested white blood cells. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. This organism matches the description provided in the question - unicellular with pseudopodia and ingested white blood cells, commonly found in dental plaque. Entamoeba gingivalis is known to inhabit the oral cavity and is associated with periodontal disease. Trichomonas vaginalis, Giardia lamblia, and Balantidium coli do not match the characteristics mentioned in the question and are not typically found in the oral cavity.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a common bacterium found in the gastrointestinal tract and is a leading cause of UTIs. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to adhere to and infect the urinary tract. Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, and Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium known for causing UTIs.
Question 6 of 9
Hemagglutinin of influenza viruses:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hemagglutinin of influenza viruses serves as an attachment molecule to the receptor of the target cell, facilitating viral entry. This is crucial for the virus to infect host cells. Choice A is incorrect because hemagglutinin is not part of the viral capsid but rather a surface protein. Choice B is incorrect as hemagglutinin is not directly involved in viral replication, but in host cell attachment. Choice D is incorrect as hemagglutinin is highly antigenic, triggering the host's immune response.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with chronic diarrhea had a stool sample revealing cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because Entamoeba histolytica is known to cause amebic dysentery, leading to chronic diarrhea. The presence of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Giardia lamblia (choice B) is known to cause diarrhea but does not present with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli (choice C) is a ciliated protozoan that can cause diarrhea, but it does not have cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (choice D) is a non-pathogenic protozoan commonly found in the human colon and is not associated with causing chronic diarrhea or cysts with four nuclei.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What drug should be prescribed in the first place?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is a first-line drug for treating active pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy and low toxicity. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids in the bacterial cell wall. Sulfalen, Cyclocerine, and Ethionamide are not first-line drugs for tuberculosis. Sulfalen is used for urinary tract infections, Cyclocerine for drug-resistant tuberculosis, and Ethionamide as a second-line drug for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. Therefore, Isoniazid is the most appropriate initial choice for treating active focal pulmonary tuberculosis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The given characteristics match this bacterium: Gram-positive diplococci, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, Enterococcus faecalis is not alpha-hemolytic, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is not Gram-positive diplococci.