Early this morning a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client, who has now nausea, a temperature of 105F (40.5C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

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Question 1 of 9

Early this morning a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client, who has now nausea, a temperature of 105F (40.5C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid crisis. These signs suggest thyroid storm, a life-threatening complication of thyroid surgery. The high fever, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic symptoms. Thyroid crisis can lead to severe complications if not managed promptly. A: Diabetic ketoacidosis typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity breath odor. B: Hypoglycemia would present with symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion. D: Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia and presents with muscle cramps, spasms, and numbness.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following data regarding a client with a diagnosis of colon cancer are subjective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because subjective data refers to information reported by the client, such as their symptoms or feelings. In this case, the client experiencing nausea and loss of appetite due to chemotherapy is subjective as it is based on the client's personal experience and perception. Choice B is incorrect because the client becoming teary is an observable behavior, making it an objective data point. Choice C is incorrect as the amount of effluent from the ileostomy is a measurable and quantifiable data, making it objective. Choice D is also incorrect as the patient's unwillingness to manipulate or empty his ostomy bag is an observable behavior, not based on the client's report.

Question 3 of 9

A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.

Question 5 of 9

A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.

Question 6 of 9

A client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgery. Surgery is the primary treatment for vaginal cancer, especially for early-stage cases. It involves removing the cancerous tissue from the vagina. Radiation (B) and chemotherapy (C) may also be used in addition to surgery in some cases, but they are not the primary treatment. Immunotherapy (D) is not a standard treatment for vaginal cancer. It is important to prioritize surgery as it directly targets and removes the cancerous cells from the affected area, increasing the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

Question 7 of 9

A new nurse is confused about using evaluative measures when caring for patients and asks the charge nurse for an explanation. Which response by the charge nurse is most accurate? “Evaluative measures are multiple-page documents used to evaluate nurse

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because evaluative measures in nursing refer to the assessment data used to determine if patients have achieved their expected outcomes and goals. This is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because it defines evaluative measures as multiple-page documents, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the progression of a nurse's skill level rather than patient outcomes. Choice D is incorrect as it defines evaluative measures as objective views of completing nursing interventions, which is too narrow of a definition.

Question 8 of 9

One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This is because changing positions regularly helps to relieve pressure on specific areas, reducing the risk of developing decubitus ulcers. Turning every 2 hours helps to maintain blood flow and prevent tissue damage. A: Massaging reddened areas with lotion or oils can actually cause further damage by increasing friction and pressure on the skin. B: While using a special water mattress can help distribute pressure more evenly, it is not as effective as regular turning to prevent decubitus ulcers. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but alone is not sufficient to prevent decubitus ulcers. Regular repositioning is crucial in reducing pressure and avoiding tissue breakdown.

Question 9 of 9

The dietary practice that will help a client reduce the dietary intake of sodium is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoiding the use of carbonated beverages. Carbonated beverages often have high sodium content, which can contribute to increased sodium intake. By avoiding these beverages, the client can significantly reduce their sodium consumption. Explanation: 1. Carbonated beverages often contain added sodium for flavor enhancement. 2. By avoiding carbonated beverages, the client eliminates a significant source of hidden sodium in their diet. 3. This dietary practice directly targets reducing sodium intake without compromising other nutritional aspects of the diet. Summary of other choices: A: Increasing the use of dairy products - Dairy products do not necessarily impact sodium intake significantly. B: Using an artificial sweetener in coffee - Artificial sweeteners do not contribute to sodium intake. D: Using catsup for cooking and flavoring food - Catsup is high in sodium and would not help in reducing sodium intake.

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