During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial?

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Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain strict aseptic technique. This is crucial during thoracentesis to prevent infection. Step 1: Before the procedure, sterile equipment and supplies must be used. Step 2: Proper hand hygiene is essential to reduce the risk of introducing pathogens. Step 3: During the procedure, maintaining a sterile field helps minimize the risk of contamination. Step 4: After the procedure, ensuring proper disposal of all used supplies prevents the spread of infection. Summary: A: Placing the patient in a quiet and cool room may be comforting but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. C: Advising the patient to sit still is important for accurate needle insertion but does not address infection prevention. D: Applying pressure over the puncture site is important but does not prevent infection if aseptic technique is not maintained.

Question 2 of 9

\What should the nurse teach an older client with TIA?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To comply with the medication regimen. Teaching the older client with TIA to comply with medication regimen is crucial in preventing further TIAs or strokes. Medications like antiplatelets or anticoagulants are often prescribed to manage TIA. This education empowers the client to actively participate in their own health management. Incorrect choices: A: Not to worry about the symptoms that are part of the normal aging process - This is incorrect as TIA symptoms are not considered a normal part of aging and should not be ignored. B: To admit oneself to a rehabilitation center or a nursing home for rehabilitation - This is incorrect as it is not the primary intervention for managing TIA. D: To observe any changes in the nails and skin - This is incorrect as it is not directly related to managing TIA.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following signs indicates to the nurse that digoxin (Lanoxin) has been effective for a patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output increases. This indicates digoxin's effectiveness as it improves cardiac output by enhancing contraction strength. Increased urine output signifies improved kidney perfusion due to enhanced cardiac function. Option A is incorrect as decreased urine output indicates poor kidney perfusion. Option B is incorrect as digoxin aims to regulate heart rate, not necessarily make it higher than 95. Option D is incorrect as a heart rate lower than 50 could indicate digoxin toxicity.

Question 4 of 9

The physician prescribes didanosone (ddl [Videx]), 200mg PO every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine ,AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Didanosine (ddl) can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, which can exacerbate existing neuropathy. The client's history of peripheral neuropathy warrants caution with this drug to prevent further nerve damage. Incorrect choices: B: Hypertension - Didanosine is not contraindicated in hypertension. C: Diabetes mellitus - While monitoring blood sugar levels is important, didanosine does not directly affect diabetes. D: Asthma - Didanosine does not have a significant impact on asthma. In summary, the client's pre-existing peripheral neuropathy makes it important to exercise caution with didanosine to avoid worsening this condition.

Question 5 of 9

Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. What is the nurse’s first action?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the transfusion. This is the first action the nurse should take because the sudden fever could indicate a transfusion reaction. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Continuing to monitor vital signs (choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Forcing fluids (choice A) could worsen the situation if it is a reaction to the transfusion. Increasing the flow rate of IV fluids (choice B) is not indicated as the priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent a potential adverse event.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is using assessment data gathered about a patient and combining critical thinking to develop a nursing diagnosis. What is the nurse doing?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic reasoning. The nurse is using assessment data to analyze, interpret, and make a judgement about the patient's condition. This process involves critical thinking skills to develop a nursing diagnosis. Choice A (Assigning clinical cues) is incorrect because it refers to identifying specific signs and symptoms. Choice B (Defining characteristics) is incorrect as it pertains to the features of a diagnosed condition. Choice D (Diagnostic labeling) is incorrect because it focuses on naming a specific nursing diagnosis. Diagnostic reasoning encompasses the entire process of analyzing data, making connections, and formulating a nursing diagnosis based on critical thinking.

Question 7 of 9

A client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12g/m2 IV to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Leucovorin. Leucovorin is given during methotrexate therapy to protect normal cells by acting as a rescue agent that helps to reduce the toxic effects of methotrexate. It works by enhancing the efficacy of methotrexate in cancer cells while reducing its toxicity in normal cells. Probenecid (A) is not used to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy. Cytarabine (B) and Thioguanine (C) are other chemotherapeutic agents and are not typically given to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following IV solutions is hypertonic?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 5% dextrose in 0.9% NaCl. This solution is hypertonic because it has a higher osmolarity compared to the other choices. The presence of dextrose and NaCl in this solution increases its solute concentration, causing water to move out of the cells by osmosis. Normal saline (A) and 0.45% NaCl (B) are isotonic solutions, meaning they have the same osmolarity as body fluids. 0.225% NaCl (D) is a hypotonic solution with lower osmolarity than body fluids.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension? i.Race iv.Sedentary lifestyle ii.High cholesterol v.Age iii.Cigarette smoking

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 2, 3, and 4. High cholesterol, cigarette smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle are modifiable risk factors for developing hypertension. High cholesterol can lead to atherosclerosis, increasing blood pressure. Smoking can constrict blood vessels, raising blood pressure. Sedentary lifestyle can lead to obesity and overall poor cardiovascular health, contributing to hypertension. Race and age are non-modifiable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because it includes race, a non-modifiable factor. Choice B is incorrect because it includes age, which is also non-modifiable. Choice D is incorrect because it includes all factors, including non-modifiable ones.

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