ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.
Question 2 of 9
While studying the pneumonic infection in 1928 the English doctor Frederick Griffith discovered:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transformation. Frederick Griffith discovered bacterial transformation, where genetic material can be transferred between bacteria. He observed this phenomenon while studying pneumonia-causing bacteria in 1928. Transformation is the process by which bacteria take up external DNA and incorporate it into their own genome. This discovery was crucial in understanding how genetic information can be transferred between organisms. Rationale for other choices: A: Translation - This term refers to the process of protein synthesis from mRNA, not relevant to Griffith's discovery. C: Transcription - This term refers to the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA, not related to Griffith's discovery. D: Conjugation - This term refers to the direct transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through cell-to-cell contact, which is different from the phenomenon Griffith observed.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacterium is known for producing an exotoxin that causes severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This microorganism can only be cultured in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo due to its specific growth requirements. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (choice A) can be cultured in various culture media in the laboratory. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) can be cultured on selective media like Thayer-Martin agar. Mycoplasma (choice D) can be cultured in cell cultures or specialized media. Therefore, the unique growth pattern of Mycobacterium leprae makes it the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following best describes the function of bacterial capsules?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Enable bacterial adherence to surfaces. Bacterial capsules are a protective layer outside the cell wall that helps bacteria adhere to surfaces and evade host immune responses. This allows bacteria to colonize and infect host tissues. A: Enhancing bacterial motility is typically associated with flagella, not capsules. C: Bacterial DNA replication is not directly affected by capsules. D: Bacterial capsules do play a role in protecting bacteria from desiccation by providing a barrier against drying out. However, the primary function is enabling adherence to surfaces.
Question 6 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
Question 7 of 9
On a certain territory mass death of rodents was registered. It was suspected that their death might have been caused by plague. What serological reaction should be applied for quick identification of antigen of the causative agent of this epizooty?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination. During a suspected plague outbreak, agglutination testing is used to quickly identify the antigen of the causative agent. In this test, specific antibodies are added to a sample containing the suspected antigen. If the antigen is present, it will clump together (agglutinate) with the antibodies, indicating a positive result. This method is rapid and efficient for identifying the presence of the plague-causing agent. Choice A: Precipitation involves the formation of a visible precipitate when antigen and antibody react, but it is not as quick or specific as agglutination for identifying the antigen in this scenario. Choice C: Passive hemagglutination is a variation of agglutination that uses red blood cells as carriers for antigens or antibodies. While it can be useful in certain situations, it is not typically the first choice for rapid identification of plague antigen. Choice D: Complement binding is a different type of
Question 8 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.
Question 9 of 9
Sanitary important bacteria for control of air quality are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is important for controlling air quality as it can degrade a wide range of organic compounds present in the air, helping to maintain a clean and healthy environment. Alpha and beta-hemolytic streptococci (Choice A) are not typically associated with air quality control. E. coli (Choice C) and Salmonella spp. (Choice D) are more commonly found in water and food sources, not air, making them incorrect choices for this question. Pseudomonas aeruginosa's ability to break down organic matter in the air makes it the most suitable option for maintaining sanitary air quality.