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microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct staining technique for sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses carbol fuchsin dye to stain the acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, red. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is specifically designed to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 2. Carbol fuchsin dye is used to penetrate the mycolic acid layer in the cell wall of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization. 3. Acid-alcohol is used as a decolorizer to remove the stain from non-acid-fast bacteria. 4. Methylene blue is used as a counterstain to visualize non-acid-fast bacteria in blue. Therefore, Ziehl-Neelsen staining is the most appropriate technique for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum smears. Other choices like Gram, Giemsa, and
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce enzymes that weaken the protective mucous layer of the stomach lining. Treponema pallidum (choice A) causes syphilis, Vibrio cholerae (choice B) causes cholera, and Escherichia coli (choice D) can cause various infections but is not a common cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with peptic ulcer formation.
Question 3 of 9
A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.
Question 5 of 9
Microscopy of a sputum smear revealed acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method indicates a mycobacterial infection. Among the choices, tuberculosis is the most common mycobacterial infection affecting the lungs, presenting with acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, but it typically does not show up in sputum smears. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is not acid-fast. Pneumonia is a general term for lung inflammation caused by various pathogens, not specifically mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is tuberculosis based on the microscopy findings.
Question 6 of 9
All bacteria are __________ cells.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prokaryotic. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells because they lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. They have a simple cell structure with genetic material floating freely in the cytoplasm. Choice A (eukaryotic) is incorrect because eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Choice C (diploid) is incorrect as bacteria do not have a defined ploidy level like diploid organisms do. Choice D (haploid) is also incorrect as bacteria do not have a true haploid or diploid state due to their lack of a defined nucleus.
Question 7 of 9
The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following viruses belong to the family Herpesviridae?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A: Epstein-Barr virus): 1. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, known for causing infectious mononucleosis. 2. Members of Herpesviridae have double-stranded DNA genomes and enveloped virions. 3. They establish latent infections in host cells and can reactivate periodically. 4. Poxvirus (B) belongs to the Poxviridae family, not Herpesviridae. 5. SARS (C) is caused by a coronavirus, not a herpesvirus. 6. HIV (D) belongs to the Retroviridae family, not Herpesviridae. Summary: The correct answer is A because Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, exhibiting specific characteristics distinct from the other choices.
Question 9 of 9
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Actinomycosis. Actinomycosis is a chronic suppurative bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which form sulfur granules in purulent masses surrounded by dense fibrous tissue. In this case, the presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthoma cells, and macrophages in the histological examination is characteristic of actinomycosis. The clinical presentation of skin redness, swelling, and abscess formation in the neck area also aligns with actinomycosis. Choice A: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, presenting with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not skin redness and swelling in the neck area. Choice B: Carbuncle is a bacterial skin infection involving a group of hair follicles, typically on the back of the neck, not characterized by fungal druses or sulfur granules. Choice D: Leprosy