During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct staining technique for sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses carbol fuchsin dye to stain the acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, red. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is specifically designed to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 2. Carbol fuchsin dye is used to penetrate the mycolic acid layer in the cell wall of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization. 3. Acid-alcohol is used as a decolorizer to remove the stain from non-acid-fast bacteria. 4. Methylene blue is used as a counterstain to visualize non-acid-fast bacteria in blue. Therefore, Ziehl-Neelsen staining is the most appropriate technique for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum smears. Other choices like Gram, Giemsa, and

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Tuberculosis, Q-fever, and Legionnaires disease all can infect the respiratory tract. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection affecting the lungs, Q-fever is caused by a bacterium that primarily affects the lungs, and Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia. All three diseases specifically target the respiratory system, making them the correct choices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually infects the respiratory tract, not just one or two of them.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of the organism. Additionally, it has a distinct fruity odor due to the production of certain volatile compounds. Escherichia coli (B) does not produce blue-green pigment or have a fruity odor. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) and Proteus mirabilis (D) also do not exhibit these specific characteristics associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A: Epstein-Barr virus): 1. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, known for causing infectious mononucleosis. 2. Members of Herpesviridae have double-stranded DNA genomes and enveloped virions. 3. They establish latent infections in host cells and can reactivate periodically. 4. Poxvirus (B) belongs to the Poxviridae family, not Herpesviridae. 5. SARS (C) is caused by a coronavirus, not a herpesvirus. 6. HIV (D) belongs to the Retroviridae family, not Herpesviridae. Summary: The correct answer is A because Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, exhibiting specific characteristics distinct from the other choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce enzymes that weaken the protective mucous layer of the stomach lining. Treponema pallidum (choice A) causes syphilis, Vibrio cholerae (choice B) causes cholera, and Escherichia coli (choice D) can cause various infections but is not a common cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with peptic ulcer formation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause in adults, Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults, and Haemophilus influenzae is more frequent in children. The other choices, Rubella virus (C) and Herpangina (D), are not bacterial agents known to cause meningitis.