During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct staining technique for sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses carbol fuchsin dye to stain the acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, red. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is specifically designed to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 2. Carbol fuchsin dye is used to penetrate the mycolic acid layer in the cell wall of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization. 3. Acid-alcohol is used as a decolorizer to remove the stain from non-acid-fast bacteria. 4. Methylene blue is used as a counterstain to visualize non-acid-fast bacteria in blue. Therefore, Ziehl-Neelsen staining is the most appropriate technique for identifying Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum smears. Other choices like Gram, Giemsa, and

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Initial diagnosis of influenza suggests a viral illness. Step 2: Presence of maculopapular petechial rash and high fever indicates a systemic infection. Step 3: Symptoms like euphoria, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and excitement are characteristic of epidemic typhus. Step 4: Face hyperemia, sclera reddening, and tongue tremor are specific to epidemic typhus. Step 5: Epidemic typhus is transmitted by body lice, which fits the scenario of a patient without permanent residence. Summary: - Delirium alcoholicum is unlikely due to the specific symptoms and lack of history of alcohol abuse. - Leptospirosis typically presents with jaundice and renal symptoms, not seen in this case. - Measles rash is different from the maculopapular petechial rash described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods suggest Enterobacteriaceae family. 2. Lactose fermenters narrow down to E. coli. 3. Green colonies on MacConkey agar indicate acid production. 4. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Escherichia coli. Other choices are incorrect as Klebsiella is non-lactose fermenter, Pseudomonas is oxidase-positive, and Proteus is non-lactose fermenter.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Adenoviral infections are not restricted only to the upper respiratory tract; they can also affect the gastrointestinal tract, eyes, and other organs. Adenoviruses are known to cause a wide range of illnesses beyond just respiratory infections. Therefore, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because it states that adenoviral infections are restricted to the upper respiratory tract, which is not true. Option C is incorrect because there is no circumstance where adenoviral infections are solely limited to the upper respiratory tract. Option D is also incorrect as the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. The symptoms described, such as ptosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, dry mouth, and absent gag reflex, are classic signs of botulism. Botulism is caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, commonly found in improperly preserved canned foods. The progression from gastrointestinal symptoms to neurological symptoms, like double vision and difficulty swallowing, is characteristic of botulism due to the toxin's effect on neuromuscular transmission. Poliomyelitis primarily affects the motor neurons and presents with different symptoms. Food toxicoinfection typically involves gastrointestinal symptoms and does not manifest with the neurological findings seen in this case. Acute ischemic stroke presents with sudden onset neurological deficits due to impaired blood flow to the brain, which is not consistent with the gradual progression of symptoms in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because most bacteria can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. Some bacteria are aerobic and require oxygen for growth, while others are anaerobic and can grow in the absence of oxygen. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen. Choice C is incorrect because not all bacteria are microaerophiles, which are bacteria that require a low level of oxygen for growth. Choice D is incorrect because most bacteria exhibit flexibility in their oxygen requirements.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tuberculosis. The case describes a man with a perforation in the hard palate and features of caseous necrosis with granulation tissue, endovasculitis, and a cellular infiltration mainly of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, and plasma cells. These findings are classic for tuberculosis infection, commonly seen in extrapulmonary sites like the oral cavity. Syphilis (choice A) typically presents with a painless ulcer and different histopathological features. Leprosy (choice C) presents with granulomas containing foamy macrophages. Scleroma (choice D) is caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis and presents with chronic granulomatous inflammation.