During the oral assessment of a 30-year-old patient of African descent, the nurse notes bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the nurse do in response to this finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bluish lips indicate cyanosis, a sign of inadequate oxygen supply. 2. Dark line along gingival margin suggests lead poisoning. 3. The nurse should assess for other signs of inadequate oxygen supply to determine the severity and underlying cause. 4. This finding is not normal and requires further evaluation to prevent complications. Summary: A: Checking hemoglobin for anemia is not the immediate priority when cyanosis and lead poisoning are suspected. C: Assuming this is a normal finding can lead to overlooking a potentially serious condition. D: Carbon monoxide exposure could be a consideration, but assessing for overall oxygen supply is more crucial in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Head control typically develops around 4 months, so it is normal for a 2-month-old to lack this skill. 2. Reassuring the mother that her baby is within the normal developmental range is important for reducing parental anxiety. 3. Avoiding overly alarming responses helps maintain trust and open communication with the parent. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the mother's concern and may come across as dismissive. - Choice C is incorrect as it may unnecessarily worry the mother and lead to undue stress. - Choice D is incorrect as it introduces a serious and unlikely scenario without evidence at this stage of development.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because dry, flaky cerumen can indicate a change in cilia in the ear canal, potentially leading to conductive hearing loss. This warrants further assessment by the nurse to ensure the patient's aural health is not compromised. A: Eczema lesions typically present differently and are not directly related to dry cerumen. B: While hygiene can contribute to cerumen buildup, dry, flaky cerumen alone does not necessarily indicate poor hygiene. C: Dry, flaky cerumen is not considered a normal finding in a healthy ear and should prompt further evaluation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased vascularity in the upper respiratory tract as a result of the pregnancy. During pregnancy, hormonal changes lead to increased blood flow in the body, including the nasal passages, causing them to become more sensitive and prone to bleeding. This explains why the woman is experiencing more nosebleeds. Incorrect Choices: A: coagulation problems in the patient - This is incorrect as pregnancy is associated with hypercoagulability rather than coagulation problems. C: increased susceptibility to colds and nasal irritation - While pregnancy can lower immunity, this does not directly cause nosebleeds. D: inappropriate use of nasal sprays - This is not relevant to the situation described and does not explain the increased nosebleeds due to pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. The presence of "cotton wool" or fluffy grey-white cumulus clouds on ophthalmoscopic examination indicates retinal nerve fiber layer infarcts due to microvascular damage, which is a common finding in diabetic retinopathy. This occurs due to ischemia and subsequent axonal swelling. In diabetes, hyperglycemia can lead to damage in the blood vessels supplying the retina, resulting in microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and ultimately vision loss if left untreated. Summary of other choices: B: Hyperthyroidism - This condition primarily affects the thyroid gland and does not directly cause the characteristic retinal findings described. C: Glaucoma - Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, which does not typically present with the specific retinal findings mentioned. D: Hypotension - Low blood pressure may lead to retinal artery occlusion or ischemic optic neuropathy,

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: lichenification. Lichenification is the thickening and hardening of the skin due to chronic scratching or rubbing. In this case, the patient's continuous scratching has led to lichenification. The term "terrible itch" indicates a persistent and severe itching sensation, which aligns with the chronic scratching behavior. Choices A, B, and C are not correct because a keloid is an overgrowth of scar tissue, a fissure is a small cut or crack in the skin, and keratosis is the thickening of the outer layer of the skin. These conditions are not directly related to chronic scratching behavior.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: filter out dust and bacteria. The ciliated mucous membrane in the nose traps dust and bacteria present in the inhaled air through the mucus layer and then moves them towards the throat to be swallowed or expelled. This helps in protecting the respiratory system from harmful particles. Choice A is incorrect as the warming of inhaled air is primarily done by the nasal passages and sinuses, not the ciliated mucous membrane. Choice C is incorrect because the filtering of coarse particles is also done by the nasal hairs and the mucous membrane working together, not just the ciliated mucous membrane alone. Choice D is incorrect as the movement of air through the nares is mainly controlled by the size of the nostrils and is not the primary function of the ciliated mucous membrane.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (CN VII) is correct: 1. Palpebral fissures are controlled by muscles innervated by CN VII (facial nerve). 2. Damage to CN VII can result in facial asymmetry, affecting palpebral fissures. 3. CN III (choice A) controls eye movement, not palpebral fissures. 4. CN V (choice B) controls facial sensation, not palpebral fissures. 5. CN VIII (choice D) controls hearing and balance, not palpebral fissures. Summary: Choice C is correct as damage to CN VII affects palpebral fissures due to facial muscle innervation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not control the muscles responsible for palpebral fissures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.