ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the first contact of the patient with the nurse, the latter should demonstrate the following behavior, which the EXCEPTION of _______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the first contact with a patient, a nurse should demonstrate caring, encouraging, and comforting behaviors. These qualities help create a positive and supportive environment for the patient. However, compelling behavior, which implies forcing or pressuring someone to do something, is not appropriate during the initial interaction with a patient. It is essential for the nurse to build trust and rapport with the patient, and compelling behavior can be counterproductive to establishing a nurturing relationship. Thus, compelling is the exception among the given choices for the nurse's behavior during the first contact with a patient.
Question 2 of 9
What is the appropriate initial management for a conscious patient experiencing a syncopal episode (fainting)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate initial management for a conscious patient experiencing a syncopal episode (fainting) is to provide reassurance and assist the patient to a lying position. This is important to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain and to prevent further injury in case the patient faints again. Elevating the legs above the level of the heart is not recommended as a routine intervention for syncope. Administering intravenous fluids rapidly is not usually needed in the initial management of syncope without signs of dehydration or significant bleeding. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is not necessary for most cases of syncope unless there are specific indications such as signs of respiratory distress.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for postoperative pain management. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing respiratory depression in the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry is essential for preventing respiratory depression in a patient prescribed an opioid analgesic. Opioid analgesics can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression. By constantly monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation levels with pulse oximetry, nurses can promptly detect any signs of respiratory depression and intervene early to prevent serious complications. This allows for timely adjustments in the medication dosage or administration of other supportive measures to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory compromise. Administering naloxone prophylactically may be necessary in case of an opioid overdose but is not typically done as a preventive measure. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can help prevent respiratory complications postoperatively but may not be sufficient in the presence of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering bronchodilators as needed is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression caused by opioid analgesics.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a parasite commonly found in contaminated water sources such as streams or lakes. It causes an infection called cryptosporidiosis, which often presents with symptoms like watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. The oocysts of Cryptosporidium parvum can be identified in stool samples, making it the likely culprit in this scenario. Giardia lamblia, another common waterborne parasite, can also cause similar symptoms but is characterized by trophozoites rather than oocysts in stool samples. Entamoeba histolytica is associated with amoebic dysentery and does not typically present with watery diarrhea. Cyclospora cayetanensis is another parasite causing gastrointestinal symptoms but is not as commonly associated with contaminated water sources as Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 5 of 9
One of the committee members raised the question on how to make an abstract. The question was followed by how many words are required in an abstract should (APA) style be followed.? What is the CORRECT answer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When following the APA style, the recommended word count for an abstract is typically between 150 to 250 words. An abstract should serve as a concise summary of the main points of a research paper, providing the reader with a preview of the content without going into excessive detail. Keeping the abstract within the specified word range ensures that it effectively captures the essence of the paper while remaining clear and succinct.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. The patient reports a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus following a recent upper respiratory tract infection is consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is characterized by acute onset vertigo, often severe, which is typically associated with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. The condition is thought to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often viral in nature, which can occur following an upper respiratory tract infection. This inflammation leads to dysfunction of the vestibular system in the inner ear, resulting in the symptoms described. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head movements, is less likely in this case given the sudden onset of symptoms not triggered by head movements. Meniere's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo accompanied by hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a tibial shaft fracture undergoes surgical fixation with an intramedullary nail. What postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following surgical fixation of a tibial shaft fracture with an intramedullary nail, healthcare providers should monitor for the development of fat embolism syndrome (FES) in the immediate postoperative period. FES is a serious complication that occurs when fat droplets from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and cause respiratory and neurological symptoms. Clinical manifestations of FES may include dyspnea, tachypnea, petechial rash, altered mental status, and hypoxemia. Prompt recognition and treatment are essential in managing fat embolism syndrome to prevent serious complications such as respiratory failure and neurological deficits. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of FES is crucial in the postoperative care of patients undergoing surgical fixation of long bone fractures.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with gradual-onset memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with complex tasks such as managing finances and planning. Over time, the patient develops disorientation to time and place and requires assistance with activities of daily living. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of gradual-onset memory loss, confusion, difficulty with complex tasks, disorientation, and functional decline are all classic features of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, leading to widespread neuronal damage and cognitive decline. As the disease progresses, patients typically experience worsening memory loss, cognitive impairment, and deficits in activities of daily living, ultimately requiring full-time care and assistance. Other neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and frontotemporal dementia may present with cognitive impairment and behavioral changes, but the specific constellation of symptoms described in the case is most indicative of Alzheimer's disease.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is NOT APPROPRIATE description and written in the Nurses notes when a patient has a pitting edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When documenting pitting edema in a patient's notes, it is important to include details such as the degree of edema (A), duration of indentation (B), and depth of edema (D) as these parameters are relevant in assessing the severity of the condition and monitoring changes over time. However, mentioning the degree of temperature (C) is not directly related to assessing pitting edema. Temperature is typically assessed as part of a general physical assessment for signs of infection or inflammation and is not specifically needed when documenting pitting edema.