During the evaluation phase, what key action does the nurse perform?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

During the evaluation phase, what key action does the nurse perform?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During the evaluation phase, the nurse performs the key action of determining the effectiveness of the care plan. This involves assessing whether the client's goals are being met, if interventions are achieving the desired outcomes, and if any modifications are necessary. This step is crucial to ensure the care plan is successful and the client's needs are being addressed appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because diagnosing the client's condition is typically done in the assessment phase, not during evaluation. Choice B is incorrect as identifying nursing interventions is part of the planning phase. Choice D is incorrect as developing goals and outcomes is part of the planning phase as well. Overall, the evaluation phase focuses on assessing the effectiveness of the care plan rather than diagnosing, identifying interventions, or developing goals.

Question 2 of 5

Which virus causes genital warts?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the virus that causes genital warts. It is transmitted through sexual contact and is the most common sexually transmitted infection. Cytomegalovirus (A) does not cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus type II (C) causes genital herpes, not warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (D) causes AIDS and weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts.

Question 3 of 5

Management of hypercalcemia includes all of the following actions except administration of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administration of the diuretic furosemide without saline is not recommended for managing hypercalcemia. Furosemide can lead to volume depletion and potentially exacerbate hypercalcemia by concentrating calcium levels in the blood. A: Fluid administration helps dilute calcium levels by increasing urine output. C: Inorganic phosphate salts can bind with calcium in the gut, reducing absorption. D: Intravenous phosphate therapy can help lower calcium levels by promoting calcium-phosphate complex formation. In summary, B is incorrect as it may worsen hypercalcemia, while A, C, and D are valid strategies for managing hypercalcemia.

Question 4 of 5

Serum albumin Is to be administered intravenously to client with ascites, The expected outcome of this treatment will be a decrease in:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abdominal girth. Serum albumin helps to increase oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, reducing fluid leakage into the abdomen and decreasing ascites, leading to a decrease in abdominal girth. Option A is incorrect because serum albumin does not directly affect urinary output. Option B is incorrect as serum albumin does not directly impact serum ammonia levels. Option D is incorrect because while serum albumin can help improve liver function, it does not directly treat hepatic encephalopathy.

Question 5 of 5

If a client’s parathyroid glands were accidentally removed during a procedure, which condition should the nurse prepare for?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the body. Without them, calcium levels will drop, leading to hypocalcemia. A: Hypomagnesemia is incorrect because magnesium levels are not directly regulated by the parathyroid glands. B: Hyperkalemia and C: Hypernatremia are incorrect as they are not typically associated with parathyroid gland removal. In summary, the removal of parathyroid glands would result in hypocalcemia due to the disruption of calcium regulation in the body.

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