ATI RN
Stage Theories of Health Behavior Questions
Question 1 of 5
During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. diltiazem (Cardizem). This client should be assessed first because atrial fibrillation can lead to serious complications like stroke or heart failure. Assessing this client allows for prompt intervention to stabilize the heart rhythm. Choice A can be ruled out as the client's vital signs are stable and the condition has been present for 2 days. Choice B should be assessed next due to the critically low blood pressure, but the client with atrial fibrillation takes priority. Choice C, although receiving heparin, does not have an acute condition like atrial fibrillation that requires immediate attention.
Question 2 of 5
A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side. After a stroke, immobility can lead to blood pooling in the deep veins, increasing the risk of DVT. This can cause swelling in the affected limb. Choices A and B do not directly relate to swelling post-stroke. Choice D is not relevant to the situation described. Therefore, the correct choice is C due to the increased risk of DVT from immobility post-stroke.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. In pernicious anemia, the body lacks intrinsic factor needed for vitamin B12 absorption, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Pallor is a common symptom due to decreased red blood cells. Tachycardia occurs as the heart compensates for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. A sore tongue, known as glossitis, is a classic sign of B12 deficiency. Choices A, C, and D do not align with typical manifestations of pernicious anemia.
Question 5 of 5
Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone calls should the nurse return first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with a cast on the right leg reporting a "funny feeling" could indicate a potential circulation or nerve issue, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. It is important to prioritize urgent physical concerns over other symptoms like itching, nausea, or trouble sleeping. The other options, A, C, and D, are important but not as urgent as the potential complications associated with impaired circulation or nerve function in a client with a leg cast.