ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
Question 2 of 9
While assessing the tonsils of a 30-year-old, the nurse notes that they look involuted and granular, and appear to have deep crypts. What is the correct follow-up to these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nothing, this is the appearance of normal tonsils. In a 30-year-old, tonsils commonly appear involuted, granular, and have deep crypts due to natural aging and exposure to infections. This is considered a normal variant and does not typically require further intervention. Referral to a specialist (Option A) is unnecessary as these findings are within the normal range. Continuing the assessment (Option C) may not yield significant abnormal findings related to the tonsils. Throat culture for strep (Option D) is not indicated unless there are specific symptoms or signs of infection.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 4 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 5 of 9
When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse would expect to find that the tympanic membrane is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pearly grey and slightly concave. This is because a healthy tympanic membrane should appear pearly grey in color and slightly concave in shape. The pearly grey color indicates normal transparency and reflection of light, while the slightly concave shape is indicative of a normal eardrum. Choice A is incorrect as a light pink color and slight bulge are not characteristic of a healthy tympanic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because a pulled-in appearance at the base of the cone of light suggests retraction, which is abnormal. Choice D is incorrect as a whitish color with a small fleck of light is not a typical presentation of a healthy tympanic membrane.
Question 6 of 9
To assess colour vision in a male child, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testing for color vision once between the ages of 4 and 8 is appropriate to assess any potential color vision deficiencies. This age range is crucial as color vision development is mostly completed by the age of 8. Annual checks (A) are not necessary unless there are specific concerns. Asking the child to identify clothing color (B) may not be a reliable indicator of color vision deficiency. No information is provided for option D.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has been admitted for severe iron-deficiency anemia. What can the nurse expect to find in the patient's fingernails?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spoon nails. In iron-deficiency anemia, the nails may develop a concave or spoon-like shape (koilonychia). This is due to the decreased oxygen supply to the nail bed. The characteristic spoon nails are indicative of severe iron deficiency. Splinter hemorrhages (choice A) are small areas of bleeding under the nails and are more commonly associated with conditions like endocarditis. Paronychia (choice B) is an infection around the nail, not specific to anemia. Beau's lines (choice D) are horizontal depressions in the nails, typically seen after a period of severe illness or stress, rather than specifically in iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.
Question 9 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.