ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.
Question 3 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has just completed a lymph assessment on a 60-year-old healthy female patient. The nurse knows that most lymph nodes in healthy adults are normally:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not palpable. In healthy adults, most lymph nodes are not palpable as they are typically small and not easily detectable through touch. This indicates normal lymphatic function and absence of significant inflammation or infection. Choices A, C, and D describe characteristics of abnormal lymph nodes, such as being shotty, large/firm/fixed, or rubbery/discrete/mobile, respectively, which are indicative of pathological conditions like infection, malignancy, or inflammation. Therefore, the absence of palpable lymph nodes in a healthy individual is the expected norm.
Question 5 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 7 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 8 of 9
In assessing the sclera of a patient of African descent, which of the following would be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because people of African descent commonly have a pigmented layer near the outer canthus of the lower lid called the "plica semilunaris." This is a normal anatomical variation in this population. Yellow fatty deposits over the cornea (choice A) are not typical findings in this demographic. Yellow color of the sclera extending up to the iris (choice C) is not a characteristic feature. The presence of small brown macules on the sclera (choice D) is also not a common finding in individuals of African descent.
Question 9 of 9
During a checkup, a 22-year-old woman tells the nurse that she uses an over-the-counter nasal spray for her allergies. She also reports that it does not work as well as it used to. The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because over-the-counter nasal sprays, especially those containing decongestants, can lead to rebound swelling when used for an extended period. Rebound swelling occurs when the nasal passages become more congested after the effects of the medication wear off. This can result in a cycle of dependency on the nasal spray to alleviate symptoms, leading to worsening congestion over time. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this potential risk and suggest alternative treatment options to address her allergies effectively without causing rebound swelling. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: Incorrect, as not all over-the-counter nasal sprays carry a risk of addiction. B: Incorrect, as switching to another brand may not address the underlying issue of rebound swelling. C: Incorrect, as continuous use of the nasal spray without addressing rebound swelling can exacerbate the problem.