ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pneumocystis pneumonia. This is the most common life-threatening infection in HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ counts. Pneumocystis pneumonia is caused by the opportunistic pathogen Pneumocystis jirovecii, which can lead to severe respiratory distress and mortality in immunocompromised individuals. The other choices, A: Salmonella infection, B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and C: Clostridium difficile, can also cause infections in HIV-positive patients, but they are not as commonly associated with life-threatening complications in this population compared to Pneumocystis pneumonia. It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize assessment for signs and symptoms of Pneumocystis pneumonia in this patient to promptly intervene and prevent further complications.
Question 2 of 9
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. This is because the initial response to levodopa-carbidopa in Parkinson's disease can be very positive, leading to significant symptom relief. However, over time, as the disease progresses and the body adjusts to the medication, adverse effects such as dyskinesias may become more prominent. Choice B is incorrect because the benefits of levodopa-carbidopa can be seen relatively soon after initiation of treatment and do not necessarily take 6 to 9 months to peak. Choice C is incorrect as the temporary improvement is likely related to the medication, given the significant symptom relief experienced. Choice D is incorrect because while benefits may diminish over time, it is not necessarily after 1 or 2 years of treatment, and some patients may continue to benefit from the medication long-term.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with glaucoma how to administer eye drops to achieve maximum absorption. The nurse should teach the patient to perform what action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because instilling the medication in the conjunctival sac allows for direct absorption into the eye tissues. This method ensures that the medication reaches the target area for treating glaucoma effectively. Maintaining a supine position (choice B) or keeping the eyes closed (choice C) after administration does not enhance absorption and may lead to wasted medication. Applying the medication to the sclera (choice D) is incorrect as it does not target the specific area needed for treating glaucoma.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 6 of 9
The patient is having lower abdominal surgeryand the nurse inserts an indwelling catheter. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because anesthetics used during surgery can decrease bladder contractility, leading to urinary retention. By inserting an indwelling catheter, the nurse ensures proper drainage of urine and prevents bladder distention. This helps to maintain the patient's comfort and prevent complications such as urinary retention and potential bladder injury. Choice A is incorrect because inserting a catheter is not primarily to prevent uncontrollable voiding during surgery. Choice B is incorrect as local trauma does not promote excessive urine incontinence necessitating catheterization. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of catheter insertion is not to prevent interruption of the procedure by bathroom breaks.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient has been infected with HIV. Antibodies to the AIDS virus in the blood indicate a past or current infection with HIV. This is because the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of the virus. A: The patient is immune to HIV is incorrect because antibodies indicate exposure, not immunity. B: The patient's immune system is intact is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not necessarily reflect the overall functionality of the immune system. C: The patient has AIDS-related complications is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not directly indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgery center after an incisional biopsy of a mass in her left breast. What are the criteria for discharging this patient home? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Ambulating is a crucial postoperative activity to prevent complications like blood clots. 2. Understanding when to ambulate ensures the patient follows proper recovery guidelines. 3. Proper ambulation aids in preventing postoperative complications and promotes healing. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Having someone accompany the patient is important for support but not a strict criteria for discharge. C. While understanding activity restrictions is important, it is not a specific criteria for immediate discharge. D. Understanding care for the biopsy site is essential but not a strict criteria for immediate discharge. E. Removal of a urinary catheter is not typically related to discharge criteria for a breast biopsy.