Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

During surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's blood pressure is trending higher than the baseline. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the anesthesia provider for further assessment. This is the most appropriate action because an anesthesia provider is trained to assess and manage changes in blood pressure during surgery. Administering antihypertensive medication (A) without proper assessment can be dangerous. Documenting the readings (B) is important but not the immediate action. Continuing to monitor closely (D) is necessary but notifying the anesthesia provider for further assessment should be the priority.

Question 2 of 5

A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a woman in active labor exhibits signs of prolonged second stage, such as ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent, one of the maternal conditions that should be considered is pelvic floor dysfunction. The pelvic floor muscles play a crucial role in supporting the uterus, bladder, and rectum. If these muscles are weak or dysfunctional, it can lead to difficulty in pushing effectively and impede the descent of the fetus through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor and increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, assessing for pelvic floor dysfunction is important in addressing the abnormal labor pattern and providing appropriate interventions to support the progress of labor.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.

Question 4 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute delirium with agitation and hallucinations. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's delirium?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Implement environmental modifications to promote sleep hygiene. Delirium is often triggered by environmental factors like noise, light, and disruption of sleep. By optimizing the environment for rest and minimizing stimuli, the patient's delirium can improve. This approach focuses on addressing the root cause rather than just managing symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because antipsychotic medications can worsen delirium and are not recommended as first-line treatment. Choice C is not the priority as ruling out focal deficits may be important but does not directly address the delirium. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines can exacerbate delirium and are not recommended due to their potential to worsen cognitive function.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed aspirin and clopidogrel for dual antiplatelet therapy. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing bleeding complications in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) concomitantly. Aspirin and clopidogrel can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. PPIs help reduce this risk by decreasing gastric acid production. Therefore, administering PPIs with dual antiplatelet therapy is essential for preventing bleeding complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake (B) may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of thrombocytopenia (C) is important but may not directly prevent bleeding in this case. Providing education on fall prevention measures (D) is important for overall safety but does not directly address bleeding risks associated with dual antiplatelet therapy.

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