During sanitary and bacteriological testing of water with the membrane filter technique there were revealed two red colonies on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of water was filtred. Calculate the coli index and coli titer of the analyzed water:

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Foundations in Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

During sanitary and bacteriological testing of water with the membrane filter technique there were revealed two red colonies on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of water was filtred. Calculate the coli index and coli titer of the analyzed water:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (coli index of 250 and coli titer of 4). The coli index is calculated by multiplying the number of colonies by the reciprocal of the volume filtered, which gives 2 colonies x (1/0.5 L) = 4. The coli titer is obtained by dividing the volume filtered by the number of colonies, which gives 0.5 L / 2 colonies = 0.25 L or 250 ml. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choice A (4 and 250) is incorrect because it has the correct coli index but the values are reversed for coli index and coli titer. Choice B (2 and 500) is incorrect as it provides the correct coli titer value but the values are reversed for coli index and coli titer. Choice D (500 and 2) is incorrect because it reverses the values for both coli index and coli titer.

Question 2 of 9

The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes which consist of DNA strands and protein molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The presence of a nucleus with a nuclear membrane indicates eukaryotic cells. 2. Eukaryotes have genetic material in chromosomes made of DNA and proteins. 3. Mitotic division is characteristic of eukaryotic cells. 4. Therefore, the organisms described are eukaryotes. Summary: - Bacteriophages (B) are viruses that infect bacteria. - Prokaryotes (C) lack a nucleus and their genetic material is not organized into chromosomes. - Viruses (D) are not considered living organisms and do not have a nucleus or chromosomes.

Question 3 of 9

Prophylaxis of smallpox and revaccination is performed:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because smallpox vaccination provides long-lasting immunity, often for a lifetime. Revaccination is not necessary as the initial vaccine confers sufficient protection. Choice A is incorrect because yearly revaccination is unnecessary and excessive. Choice B and C are also incorrect as there is no need for revaccination every second or third year. The key is to understand that smallpox vaccination typically provides lifelong immunity, making ongoing revaccination unnecessary.

Question 4 of 9

Elementary and reticular bodies are morphological?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. Elementary bodies (EBs) and reticular bodies (RBs) are two distinct forms of Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium causing various infections. EBs are the infectious form, while RBs are the replicative form within host cells. Mycoplasma genitalium (choice A) lacks a cell wall and does not have these specific morphological forms. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) is an obligate intracellular bacterium but does not exhibit the elementary and reticular body forms characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as only Chlamydia trachomatis exhibits the elementary and reticular bodies.

Question 5 of 9

The causative agent of plague is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is the causative agent of plague, a serious infectious disease transmitted through fleas. It causes bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plague. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Rickettsia prowazekii causes epidemic typhus, and Treponema pallidum causes syphilis. Y. pestis is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with plague, making the other options incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses, confirmed by scientific research. Step 2: Poxviruses replicate entirely in the cytoplasm, unlike most DNA viruses. Step 3: Cytoplasmic replication is a unique characteristic of poxviruses. Step 4: The replication process of poxviruses in the cytoplasm is well-documented. Step 5: Therefore, option A (TRUE) is correct, as poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm exclusively.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a long history of chronic gastritis undergoes a gastroscopy, which detects an ulcer in the duodenum area. Microscopic examination of the tissue biopsy developed Gram-negative curved bacteria and the rapid urease activity test of the biopsy material was highly positive. The most likely cause of the disease is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Helicobacter pylori. Helicobacter pylori is a known bacterium associated with causing duodenal ulcers. The presence of Gram-negative curved bacteria in the biopsy along with a highly positive rapid urease test is characteristic of H. pylori infection. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not duodenal ulcers. Campylobacter fetus is associated with gastroenteritis, not duodenal ulcers. Acinetobacter baumannii is a nosocomial pathogen, not typically associated with duodenal ulcers. In summary, the unique combination of findings in this case points towards H. pylori as the most likely cause of the disease.

Question 8 of 9

A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.

Question 9 of 9

In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week __________, after which the developing infant is called a fetus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8. The embryonic phase in humans lasts until the end of week 8. During this time, the major organs and structures of the body begin to form. After week 8, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. Choice A (2) is too early for this transition to occur, Choice B (6) is also premature, and Choice D (12) is too late as the embryonic phase ends before week 12. Therefore, the correct answer is C (8) as it accurately reflects the timeline of embryonic development in humans.

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