Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

During outcome identification and planning, from what part of the nursing diagnoses are outcomes derived?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During outcome identification and planning, outcomes are derived from the problem statement of the nursing diagnoses. This is because the problem statement clearly defines the patient's health issue or condition that needs to be addressed, thus guiding the development of specific, measurable, and achievable outcomes. The defining characteristics (choice A) describe the signs and symptoms of the health problem but do not directly lead to outcome identification. The related factors (choice B) represent the potential causes or contributing factors to the health problem and are not used to derive outcomes. The database (choice D) consists of the patient's health history, assessment data, and laboratory findings, which are essential for diagnosing but do not directly determine outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly informs the outcomes to be achieved.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more in-depth exploration of the issue. Option A focuses on stress, not necessarily fatigue. Option C is too specific and may not uncover underlying causes. Option D assumes sleep duration is the only factor contributing to fatigue.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse observes the client as he walks into the room. What information will this provide the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the client's gait while walking can provide valuable information about their physical mobility, balance, coordination, and any potential musculoskeletal issues. This assessment helps the nurse determine if the client requires any assistance, mobility aids, or further evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices B and C are incorrect as observing gait does not directly provide information on personality or psychosocial status. Choice D is incorrect as gait observation is not specifically related to the rate of recovery from surgery. In summary, observing the client's gait is important for assessing physical mobility and identifying potential issues, making it the most relevant choice in this context.

Question 4 of 5

What is an important consideration regarding TPN administration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Aseptic technique prevents infection at IV site. 2. TPN is a high-risk solution, requiring strict aseptic administration. 3. Contaminated site can lead to sepsis or other serious complications. 4. Choice B increases risk of contamination. 5. Choice C increases risk of bacterial growth. 6. Choice D may introduce air or contamination. Summary: Choice A is correct as it emphasizes infection prevention. Choices B, C, and D pose risks of contamination, bacterial growth, or air introduction.

Question 5 of 5

Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.

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