ATI RN
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
During fibergastroscopy a patient with ulcer disease of the stomach, the mucosal biopsy is taken from the area of an ulcer. Impression smear is prepared from biopsy material and stained by Gram method; the rest of biopsy material is tested for urease activity. Microscopy of the impression smear revealed gram- negative spiral-shaped microorganisms, urease activity test is positive. What bacteria were detected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. Rationale: 1. Gram-negative spiral-shaped microorganisms match the morphology of Helicobacter pylori. 2. Positive urease activity is a characteristic feature of Helicjsonacter pylori. 3. Helicobacter pylori is specifically associated with gastric ulcers and is a common pathogen in the gastrointestinal tract. Summary: Choice B, Campilobacter jejuni, is a gram-negative curved bacterium but is not typically associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity. Choice C, Treponema pallidum, is a spirochete bacterium causing syphilis, which is not related to gastric ulcers. Choice D, Spirilla minor, is a generic term for spiral-shaped bacteria and is not a specific pathogen associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the causative agent of tetanus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. This bacterium produces tetanospasmin toxin, causing tetanus. Clostridium botulinum (choice A) produces botulinum toxin, leading to botulism. Bacillus anthracis (choice C) causes anthrax, not tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) can cause various infections, but not tetanus. Therefore, only Clostridium tetani is the causative agent of tetanus.
Question 3 of 9
A sample stained using Romanovsky-Giemsa method revealed crescent-shaped protozoa with pointed ends and blue cytoplasm. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. The crescent-shaped protozoa with pointed ends and blue cytoplasm described in the question are characteristic of Toxoplasma gondii, the causative agent of toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasma staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method typically shows these specific morphological features. Plasmodium causes malaria and does not exhibit the described morphology. Leishmania and Trypanosoma are both kinetoplastid parasites, but they do not typically present as crescent-shaped protozoa with blue cytoplasm. Therefore, based on the specific characteristics described in the question, the correct answer is Toxoplasma.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following stains is generally used for the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid-fast stain. This stain is used for diagnosing tuberculosis due to the unique cell wall composition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which resists decolorization by acid-alcohol. This allows the bacteria to retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope. Gram stain (B) is not suitable for Mycobacterium tuberculosis as it is gram-positive but does not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. Negative stain (C) is not used for bacterial identification. Simple stain (D) does not differentiate acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the formation of dental caries?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus mutans is known for its ability to produce lactic acid, which contributes to the demineralization of tooth enamel, leading to dental caries. Step 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common respiratory pathogen and not directly associated with dental caries. Step 3: Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen and not typically found in the oral cavity or associated with dental caries. Step 4: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, a neurological condition, and is not involved in the formation of dental caries. Summary: Choice A is correct as Streptococcus mutans is specifically linked to dental caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with dental caries.
Question 7 of 9
Extrachromosomal carriers of the genetic information in bacteria are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome. They carry additional genetic information, such as antibiotic resistance genes or virulence factors. Mesosomes (choice A) are not involved in carrying genetic information; they are infoldings of the cell membrane. Ribosomes (choice C) are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis, not carriers of genetic information. Choice D is incorrect as plasmids are indeed extrachromosomal carriers of genetic information in bacteria.
Question 8 of 9
(+) ssRNA viruses that have been isolated from birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and humans and are a major cause of gastroenteritis are the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: caliciviruses. Caliciviruses are known to be (+) ssRNA viruses that cause gastroenteritis in a wide range of animals, including birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and humans. These viruses are highly contagious and can spread through contaminated food or water. Rotaviruses (A) are also a common cause of gastroenteritis, but they are not exclusively isolated from the mentioned animals. Adenoviruses (C) typically cause respiratory or eye infections, not gastroenteritis. Noroviruses (D) are also a major cause of gastroenteritis in humans, but they are not commonly found in animals other than humans.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A Streptococcus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erysipelas. Erysipelas is a type of acute infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This bacteria infects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a distinct raised, well-demarcated, erythematous skin lesion. The other choices are incorrect because: A Carbuncle is a deep skin infection involving hair follicles, B Impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, and D Acne is a chronic inflammatory skin condition not typically caused by group A Streptococcus.