ATI RN
Assessment of Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
During examination of the scrotum, a normal finding would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is a normal anatomical variation for the left testicle to hang lower than the right due to the longer length of the left spermatic cord. This is called the "cremasteric reflex." Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the testicles should feel similar in firmness, size, and tenderness on examination.
Question 2 of 5
This class of drug exert its antimicrobial action by binding to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, is the drug of choice for treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma, but should be avoided in patients with liver disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, inhibiting protein synthesis. They are effective in treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma. However, tetracyclines should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Explanation: 1. Daptomycin (A) is a lipopeptide antibiotic that acts by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. 2. Carbapenems (B) are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis via ribosomal binding. 3. Cephalosporins (C) are beta-lactam antibiotics that also inhibit cell wall synthesis and do not target ribosomes like tetracyclines do.
Question 3 of 5
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is the treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum. It is given as a single dose due to its long-acting nature, ensuring adequate treatment. Ceftriaxone (B) is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. Vancomycin (C) is not effective against Treponema pallidum. Aztreonam (D) is not used for the treatment of syphilis. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this scenario is Benzathine penicillin.
Question 4 of 5
The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Ampicillin is a penicillin antibiotic that commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its irritation of the stomach lining. This is the most frequent side effect reported with oral ampicillin use. Choices B (Loose bowel movements) and C (Constipation) are less common side effects associated with ampicillin use. Choice D (Urticaria) is a possible side effect of ampicillin, but it is less frequent compared to nausea and vomiting.
Question 5 of 5
The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because amantadine exerts its antiviral action by interacting with the viral M2 protein. This protein is essential for viral replication by facilitating the release of viral genetic material into the host cell. By binding to the M2 protein, amantadine disrupts this process, preventing viral replication. Choice A is incorrect because amantadine does not inhibit viral protease enzyme activity. Choice B is incorrect because amantadine does not target viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because amantadine does not interact with a virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral drugs like acyclovir.