ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
During examination of a 4-year-old Aboriginal child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of the following statements about this condition is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This is a bifid uvula, which is a common occurrence in some Aboriginal groups. 1. A bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula is split or divided, which is a common variation seen in some Aboriginal populations. 2. Cleft palate is a different condition involving a gap in the roof of the mouth, not specifically related to Aboriginal people. 3. Uvular injury is not a common cause of a split uvula in children, so reporting to authorities is unnecessary. 4. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the roof of the mouth and not related to a split uvula or specific to Aboriginal populations.
Question 2 of 9
A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an eye examination. The nurse suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. Ptosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: drooping of the upper eyelid. Ptosis refers to the drooping of the upper eyelid, which may occur due to weakened eyelid muscles or nerve damage. In this case, the nurse suspects ptosis in the 60-year-old man, which is likely due to age-related muscle weakness. Choice A, a cloudy cornea, is incorrect as it refers to a different eye condition. Choice B, an unequal red reflex, is incorrect as it is related to abnormalities in the retina. Choice D, protruding and bulging eyes, is incorrect as it indicates exophthalmos, a condition typically seen in thyroid eye disease.
Question 3 of 9
A pregnant woman states that she is concerned about her gums because she has noticed they are swollen and have started bleeding. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Swollen and bleeding gums during pregnancy can be a sign of gingivitis or pregnancy gingivitis. Step 2: Dental check-ups during pregnancy are important to prevent potential complications. Step 3: Referring the woman to a dentist ensures proper evaluation and treatment. Step 4: Dental care is safe during pregnancy, so timely intervention is crucial. Step 5: Option C is correct as it addresses the concern with a proactive approach.
Question 4 of 9
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
Question 5 of 9
A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke, and the right side of his face is drooping. What else would the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysphagia. In a stroke patient with right-sided facial drooping, dysphagia is highly likely due to the involvement of the facial nerve, leading to difficulty swallowing. Epistaxis (A) is nosebleeds, agenesis (B) is the absence of a body part, and xerostomia (D) is dry mouth, which are not directly related to facial drooping in stroke patients. Dysphagia is a common complication post-stroke due to impaired muscle control, making it the most likely concern for the nurse to suspect in this case.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is preparing to do an otoscopic examination on a 2-year-old child. Which of the following reflects correct procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tilt the child's head slightly toward the examiner. This position straightens the ear canal, facilitating visualization. Pulling the pinna down (A) can cause discomfort and obstruct the view. Pulling the pinna up and back (B) is incorrect for a child under 3 years old as it straightens the ear canal in adults. Having the child touch his chin to his chest (D) is unnecessary and may lead to improper examination positioning.
Question 7 of 9
During ear examination, the patient reports that he is hears a buzzing sound that is"driving me crazy!" The nurse recognizes that this symptom is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: tinnitus. Tinnitus is the perception of sound without an external source, often described as ringing, buzzing, or hissing. In this case, the patient reporting a buzzing sound aligns with tinnitus. Vertigo (A) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness, not a sound perception. Pruritus (B) is itching, not a sound perception. Cholesteatoma (D) is a benign growth in the middle ear, not specifically related to sound perception. Therefore, tinnitus is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's symptom of hearing a buzzing sound.
Question 8 of 9
When performing an otoscopic examination on a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in colour and there are air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information would be that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: this is most likely serous otitis media. In a child with chronic ear infections, amber-yellow tympanic membrane color and air bubbles suggest fluid accumulation behind the eardrum, characteristic of serous otitis media. The occasional hearing loss and popping sound with swallowing are also common symptoms. Serous otitis media is a non-infectious condition caused by Eustachian tube dysfunction. Choice B: Acute purulent otitis media presents with more severe symptoms like fever and severe ear pain, which are not mentioned in the case. Choice C: Cholesteatoma is a more serious condition characterized by a cyst-like growth in the middle ear, not just fluid accumulation as seen in this case. Choice D: Perforation typically presents with a visible hole in the eardrum and is not consistent with the findings of fluid and air bubbles in this case.
Question 9 of 9
When assessing the tongue of an adult, an abnormal finding would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a smooth, glossy dorsal surface of the tongue is abnormal in adults and may indicate glossitis or nutritional deficiencies. B is incorrect as a thin white coating is normal. Raised papillae (choice C) may indicate transient lingual papillitis but are not typically abnormal. Visible venous patterns (choice D) are normal on the ventral surface.