ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
During examination of a 4-year-old Aboriginal child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of the following statements about this condition is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This is a bifid uvula, which is a common occurrence in some Aboriginal groups. 1. A bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula is split or divided, which is a common variation seen in some Aboriginal populations. 2. Cleft palate is a different condition involving a gap in the roof of the mouth, not specifically related to Aboriginal people. 3. Uvular injury is not a common cause of a split uvula in children, so reporting to authorities is unnecessary. 4. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the roof of the mouth and not related to a split uvula or specific to Aboriginal populations.
Question 2 of 9
A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.
Question 3 of 9
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is conducting an eye clinic at the day care centre. When examining a 2-year-old child, if"lazy eye" is suspected, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing for strabismus by performing the corneal light reflex test is crucial in diagnosing "lazy eye" or amblyopia in children. Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are misaligned, leading to poor vision in one eye. By performing the corneal light reflex test, the nurse can assess if the child's eyes are aligned or if there is deviation, which could indicate lazy eye. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the assessment of strabismus, which is the key indicator for lazy eye in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A mother brings her 4-month-old to the clinic with concerns about a small padlike growth on the mid- upper lip that has been present since the baby was 1 month old. The infant has no health problems. On physical examination, the nurse notes a 5-cm, fleshy, elevated area on the mid-upper lip. There is no evidence of inflammation or drainage. What would the nurse tell this mother?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a sucking tubercle is a normal finding in infants caused by friction during breastfeeding or bottle feeding. The growth is typically painless, noninflammatory, and resolves on its own over time. This explanation reassures the mother that the condition is harmless and does not require any specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because teething does not cause a sucking tubercle. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of abnormality that warrants specialist evaluation. Choice C is incorrect because chronic drooling does not typically result in a sucking tubercle.
Question 6 of 9
An 85-year-old female patient is complaining about the fact that the bones in her face have become more noticeable. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because as individuals age, there is a natural decrease in skin elasticity, subcutaneous fat, and moisture content in the skin. These factors contribute to the bones becoming more noticeable in the face. Choice A is incorrect because diets low in protein and high in carbohydrates do not directly cause enlargement of facial bones. Choice B is incorrect as the use of a specific moisturizer does not directly impact the visibility of facial bones. Choice D is incorrect because facial skin actually loses elasticity with age, leading to less taut skin and more prominent bones.
Question 7 of 9
When examining the face, the nurse is aware that the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, parotid and submandibular glands. The parotid and submandibular glands are the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible for examination in the face. The parotid gland is located near the ear, while the submandibular gland is located under the jaw. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Occipital and submental glands are not salivary glands accessible for examination in the face. B: Parotid gland is correct, but jugulodigastric gland is not a salivary gland. D: Submandibular gland is correct, but occipital gland is not a salivary gland.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.