ATI RN
Lymphatic Immune System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During exacerbations of SL, patients are often treated with:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the treatment of exacerbations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SL), corticosteroids (Option C) are often used due to their potent anti-inflammatory properties. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and suppress the overactive immune response seen in SL, providing relief from symptoms such as joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement. They are a mainstay in managing acute flares of autoimmune diseases like SL. Option A, Antiemetics, are used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not primary symptoms of SL exacerbations. Option B, Antineoplastics, are medications used to treat cancer and are not indicated for SL treatment. Option D, Antibiotics, are used to treat bacterial infections and do not target the underlying autoimmune response in SL. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind using corticosteroids in SL exacerbations highlights the importance of anti-inflammatory therapy in managing autoimmune diseases. It also emphasizes the need for targeted and appropriate treatment to address the underlying pathophysiology of the condition, rather than just symptomatic relief. This knowledge is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the care of patients with autoimmune disorders like SL.
Question 2 of 5
Priority Decision: What is the most important nursing intervention for the prevention and treatment of pressure ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the importance of preventing pressure ulcers is crucial for nurses. The most important nursing intervention for the prevention and treatment of pressure ulcers is repositioning the patient a minimum of every 2 hours (Option C). This is because pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to tissue damage. Repositioning helps redistribute pressure, relieving stress on vulnerable areas and promoting better blood flow. Option A, using pressure-reduction devices, is a helpful intervention but may not be as effective if the patient is not repositioned regularly. Massaging pressure areas with lotion (Option B) can actually be harmful as it can further damage fragile skin tissues. Using lift sheets and trapeze bars (Option D) may aid in patient movement but does not directly address the root cause of pressure ulcers, which is prolonged pressure on specific areas of the skin. Educationally, nurses need to understand the pathophysiology of pressure ulcers and the importance of preventive measures like regular repositioning. By implementing proper repositioning techniques, nurses can significantly reduce the risk of pressure ulcers in patients, promoting better overall outcomes and quality of care.
Question 3 of 5
The daughter of a man with Huntington’s disease is having presymptomatic genetic testing done. What does a positive result mean for her?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) She will get the disease. A positive result in presymptomatic genetic testing for Huntington’s disease indicates that the individual carries the genetic mutation responsible for the disease. Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning that if an individual inherits the mutated gene from one parent, they will eventually develop the disease. Option B) She is a carrier of Huntington’s disease is incorrect because being a carrier implies that the individual carries the gene but may not necessarily develop the disease themselves. Option C) She will be at increased risk for developing the disease is incorrect because a positive result in this case indicates a definitive presence of the disease-causing mutation, not just an increased risk. Option D) She should change her diet, exercise, and environment to prevent the disease is incorrect because Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder and cannot be prevented by lifestyle changes. Educationally, understanding the implications of genetic testing results is crucial for individuals and their families in making informed decisions about their healthcare. Knowing the significance of a positive result in presymptomatic testing for Huntington’s disease can help individuals plan for the future and consider available options for managing the condition.
Question 4 of 5
Which T lymphocytes are involved in direct attack and destruction of foreign pathogens?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and the lymphatic immune system, the correct answer to the question is D) T cytotoxic (CD8) cells. These cells are primarily responsible for directly attacking and destroying foreign pathogens. T cytotoxic cells recognize infected cells by binding to specific antigens presented on the surface of these cells. Once activated, they release cytotoxic substances that induce apoptosis in the target cells, effectively eliminating the pathogens. Option A) Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells that play a crucial role in initiating the immune response by presenting antigens to T cells. They are not directly involved in the destruction of pathogens but rather in activating other immune cells. Option B) Natural killer cells are a type of cytotoxic lymphocyte that can directly kill infected or cancerous cells without prior sensitization. However, they are not T lymphocytes and are not as specific in their targeting as T cytotoxic cells. Option C) T helper (CD4) cells are essential for coordinating the immune response by releasing cytokines that activate other immune cells. They do not directly attack pathogens but rather assist in the immune response. Understanding the functions of different T lymphocytes is crucial in pharmacology as it helps in designing targeted therapies that modulate specific aspects of the immune response. By grasping the roles of T cytotoxic cells, students can appreciate their significance in combating infections and developing immune memory for future protection.
Question 5 of 5
What are examples of type I or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Asthma. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies and involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils. Asthma is a classic example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction where the airways become inflamed and narrowed in response to triggers such as allergens. Option B) Urticaria, option C) Angioedema, and option D) Allergic rhinitis are not examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions. Urticaria (hives) and angioedema are examples of type I immediate hypersensitivity reactions, but they are not mediated by IgE antibodies. Allergic rhinitis, although an allergic reaction, is primarily a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is crucial in pharmacology as it helps healthcare professionals identify the underlying mechanisms of allergic reactions and select appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific types of hypersensitivity reactions, healthcare providers can tailor interventions to target the immune pathways involved, leading to better patient outcomes.