ATI RN
Psychotherapeutic Drugs Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
During client teaching, the nurse must inform the client prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) to not expect to see a difference in mood or anxiety level for up to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 2 to 3 weeks. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have a delayed onset of action, often taking 2 to 3 weeks for the full therapeutic effects to be noticeable. This delay is due to the mechanism of action of TCAs, which involves the modulation of neurotransmitters in the brain over time to alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this delayed onset to manage their expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Option A) 5 days is incorrect because a noticeable improvement in mood or anxiety levels is unlikely to occur within such a short timeframe when taking TCAs. Option C) 4 to 5 weeks and Option D) 6 weeks are also incorrect as they suggest a longer duration than typically seen with TCAs. Understanding the expected timeline for therapeutic effects of psychotropic medications is essential for both clients and healthcare providers to ensure optimal treatment outcomes and adherence to the prescribed regimen. By providing accurate information, nurses can empower clients to actively participate in their treatment and monitor their progress effectively.
Question 2 of 5
A female client is 3-days postoperative and has been receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain control. The family mentions to the nurse that the client has been taking phenelzine (Nardil) for years for her depression. The client did not list this medication on admission. What signs and symptoms should the nurse look for in case of reaction between these two medications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nardil is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor; therefore, symptoms of CNS depression such as sedation, disorientation, and hallucinations, rather than increased vital signs, hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating, and increased tearing and urination, most likely would occur as a reaction between these two medications.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is aware that he or she may be administering the new antianxiety medication pregabalin (Lyrica) to clients without an anxiety disorder for the purpose of treating:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In understanding the rationale behind administering pregabalin (Lyrica) to clients without an anxiety disorder for the purpose of treating neuropathic pain, it is crucial to comprehend the pharmacological properties of this medication. Pregabalin is an anticonvulsant drug that is also effective in managing neuropathic pain by modulating calcium channels in the central nervous system. This mechanism of action makes it suitable for conditions like diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, and fibromyalgia. Option A, depression, is incorrect as pregabalin is not indicated for the treatment of depression. Antidepressants like SSRIs or SNRIs are commonly prescribed for depression. Option B, psychotic episodes, is incorrect because pregabalin is not approved for the treatment of psychotic disorders. Antipsychotic medications are typically used in the management of psychotic episodes. Option D, bipolar disorder, is incorrect as pregabalin is not a first-line treatment for bipolar disorder. Mood stabilizers like lithium or anticonvulsants such as valproate are commonly used in bipolar disorder management. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind using a medication off-label, like pregabalin for neuropathic pain, highlights the importance of pharmacological knowledge, patient assessment, and evidence-based practice in nursing. It emphasizes the need for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive understanding of drug actions, indications, and contraindications to ensure safe and effective patient care.
Question 4 of 5
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are most health care providers' drug of choice for the treatment of depression because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The side effect most commonly reported, gastrointestinal (GI) upset, usually can be avoided if the client takes the medication with food. SSRIs can be used for both short- and long-term therapy; they are not the oldest class of antidepressants; and they usually take a few weeks before onset of effect.
Question 5 of 5
In preparing discharge planning for a client who has been prescribed lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder, the nurse must be sure that the client demonstrates an understanding of the need to monitor his or her diet for intake of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of a client being prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, monitoring sodium intake is crucial due to the potential interactions between lithium and sodium levels in the body. Lithium is excreted by the kidneys, and its elimination is affected by sodium levels. High sodium levels can lead to decreased lithium excretion, increasing the risk of lithium toxicity. Therefore, it is essential for the client to maintain a consistent and moderate sodium intake to ensure the effectiveness and safety of lithium therapy. Regarding the other options: - Potassium (Option A): While electrolyte balance is important, monitoring potassium levels is not specifically required for clients taking lithium. - Carbohydrates (Option B): Carbohydrate intake is not directly related to lithium therapy monitoring. - Protein (Option C): Protein intake is not directly related to lithium therapy monitoring. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind monitoring sodium intake in clients taking lithium is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure safe medication management and prevent potential adverse effects. It highlights the intricate relationship between medication, electrolyte balance, and dietary considerations in the context of mental health treatment. This knowledge equips healthcare professionals to educate clients effectively on managing their condition and treatment regimen for optimal outcomes.