ATI RN
Pediatric Neurology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
During assessment of the neurological status of a 5-year-old boy, it revealed exaggerated knee reflex, with spread to contiguous areas. What is the approximate scale of this reflex?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exaggerated knee reflex with spread is graded 3 , per reflex scales, indicating hyperreflexia beyond normal (2, C). Zero is absent; 1 reduced; 4 clonus. Spread suggests upper motor neuron issues, making 3 the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
In a patient with severe migraine that is not responding to the first-line measur(an analgesic, rest, and sleep in a quiet dark room), the MOST useful agent that may be considered is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Triptans are most useful for severe, unresponsive migraines, per AHS, targeting serotonin receptors to abort attacks. Propranolol and topiramate prevent, not treat acutely; nortriptyline is for chronic pain; cyproheptadine adjunctive. Triptans acute efficacy make B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
The teacher of a 6-year-old girl noticed that she had frequent attacks of a brief loss of environmental awareness accompanied by eye fluttering and lip smacking. Of the following, the first-choice therapy in this condition is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ethosuximide is first-choice for absence seizures, per NICE, targeting T-type calcium channels for brief awareness loss with eye fluttering/lip smacking. Fosphenytoin and phenobarbital treat tonic-clonic; valproate broader-spectrum; midazolam acute. Ethosuximidspecificity makes D the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
The disorder of anterior horn cell causing muscle weakness in infants and children is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Poliomyelitis affects anterior horn cells, causing weakness in children, per virology texts, from poliovirus destruction. Guillain-Barré is demyelinating; HMSN peripheral; tick paralysis junctional; Bells facial. Polios spinal targeting makes D the correct answer.
Question 5 of 5
The first-line treatment of Guillain-Barré syndrome is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IVIG is first-line for Guillain-Barré, per AAN, hastening recovery by neutralizing antibodies. Physiotherapy supports; plasma exchange alternative; drugs and steroids less effective. IVIGs evidence base make B the correct answer.