ATI RN
Psychotropic Medication Quiz Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During an assessment of the CNs, the nurse finds the following: asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of the eyebrows, sagging of the lower eyelids, and escape of air when the nurse presses against the right puffed cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these CNs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is B (Motor component of CN VII): 1. The symptoms described indicate facial nerve (CN VII) dysfunction. 2. Asymmetry when smiling/frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids are classic signs of CN VII dysfunction. 3. Escape of air when pressing on the cheek suggests weakness of the buccinator muscle innervated by CN VII. 4. CN IV (trochlear nerve) innervates the superior oblique muscle controlling eye movement, not facial expression (eliminate A). 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, not facial muscles (eliminate C). 6. CN X (vagus nerve) controls the larynx and pharynx, while CN VII controls facial muscles (eliminate D). Summary: The correct answer is B because the symptoms align with facial nerve (CN VII) dysfunction, while the other
Question 2 of 5
To test for gross motor skill and coordination of a 6-year-old child, which of these techniques would be appropriate? Ask the child to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hop on one foot. This task assesses balance, coordination, and gross motor skills in a 6-year-old child. Hopping on one foot requires a combination of strength, balance, and coordination, making it an appropriate test for gross motor skills. Standing on the head (B) is not developmentally appropriate and poses a risk of injury. Touching finger to nose (C) tests fine motor skills, not gross motor skills. Making 'funny' faces (D) does not assess motor skills or coordination.
Question 3 of 5
A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spastic hemiparesis. This individual is displaying classic signs of spastic hemiparesis, a type of gait disturbance commonly seen after a cerebrovascular accident. The immobile left arm with flexion and adduction, along with the stiff and extended left leg that circumducts, are indicative of upper motor neuron damage affecting the corticospinal tract. This results in increased muscle tone, exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, and weakness on one side of the body. Scissors gait (choice A) is characterized by legs crossing over each other during walking and is typically seen in spastic diplegia. Cerebellar ataxia (choice B) presents with uncoordinated movements, wide-based staggering gait, and intention tremors, which are not present in this case. Parkinsonian gait (choice C) is characterized by shuffling steps, decreased arm swing, and festination, which do not match the symptoms described
Question 4 of 5
A man who was found wandering in a park at 2 AM has been brought to the emergency department for an examination; he said he fell and hit his head. During the examination, the nurse asks him to use his index finger to touch the nurse's finger, then his own nose, then the nurse's finger again (which has been moved to a different location). The patient is clumsy, unable to follow the instructions, and overshoots the mark, missing the finger. The nurse should suspect which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute alcohol intoxication. The patient's inability to follow the finger-to-nose test and clumsiness are classic signs of cerebellar dysfunction, which is commonly seen in individuals under the influence of alcohol. Alcohol affects the cerebellum, leading to impaired coordination and balance. This is confirmed by the patient overshooting the mark and missing the target. The other choices (A, B, D) are less likely as they do not explain the patient's specific presentation and symptoms, which are indicative of acute alcohol intoxication.
Question 5 of 5
The parent of an adolescent with schizophrenia asks a nurse, 'My child’s doctor ordered a positron-emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that?' Select the nurse’s best reply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain. Rationale: 1. PET scans use a radioactive substance injected into the bloodstream to highlight areas of high metabolic activity in the brain. 2. This helps in assessing brain function by showing how well different areas of the brain are working. 3. It is commonly used in diagnosing conditions like schizophrenia to observe brain activity patterns that may indicate the presence of the disorder. Summary: A: Incorrect - PET does not use a magnetic field or gamma waves and does not rely on metal implants. B: Incorrect - PET is not an x-ray image and does not specifically show structures or past brain injuries. C: Incorrect - PET does not pass an electrical current or measure brain wave activity; it focuses on blood flow and metabolic activity.