ATI RN
Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
During an assessment, a client is demonstrating symptoms of moderate anxiety. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of moderate anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpitations are a common physical symptom seen in clients experiencing moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting can also indicate heightened stress levels. It's important for healthcare providers to recognize these signs and provide appropriate support. While anxiety can manifest in various ways, other indicators of moderate anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. It's crucial for healthcare providers to assess these symptoms to provide effective care and interventions. Laughing inappropriately and nail biting are more commonly associated with nervousness or social discomfort, while fidgeting may signal mild anxiety.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient are common initial biological responses to stress? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When faced with stress, the body can react in various ways. Symptoms such as constricted pupils, increased heart rate, and increased respirations are commonly seen as initial biological responses to stress. In this case, the presence of constricted pupils is not typically associated with stress responses. Dilated pupils are more commonly linked to the Fight or Flight response. Watery eyes and increased heart rate are typical responses to stress. Unusual food cravings are not considered a typical biological response to stress.
Question 3 of 9
A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, it is essential to set clear and consistent boundaries, use a firm, authoritative approach, and provide opportunities for the client to express feelings. Encouraging dependency can reinforce maladaptive behaviors, while avoiding discussing feelings can hinder therapeutic progress in addressing underlying issues. Building a sense of dependency may exacerbate the client's difficulties in developing autonomy and self-reliance, which are crucial for their progress and recovery. Therefore, encouraging dependency is not a recommended intervention in the plan of care for clients with borderline personality disorder.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve inflated beliefs about one's own importance or abilities, are not typically associated with OCD. Therefore, the presence of delusions of grandeur would not be an expected finding in a client with OCD. Choices A, B, and D are all typical features of OCD and would be expected findings during the assessment of a client with this disorder.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of quetiapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Quetiapine can lead to metabolic changes that may result in weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to address this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Quetiapine is not typically associated with hypertension, hair loss, or hyperthyroidism as common side effects.
Question 8 of 9
When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.
Question 9 of 9
Which should the individual recognize as an example of the defense mechanism of repression?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repression is a defense mechanism where distressing thoughts, feelings, or memories are pushed out of conscious awareness to protect the individual from emotional pain. In this scenario, the woman's inability to recall the traumatic event of being raped at the age of 12 indicates repression in action. Choices A, B, and C do not represent repression. Choice A reflects procrastination, choice B suggests denial, and choice C indicates sublimation as the man is channeling his unhappiness into a constructive pursuit.