ATI RN
jarvis physical assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner should avoid prescribing Allopurinol (Zyloprim) due to its mechanism of action. Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid production. However, during an acute attack, initiating or increasing Allopurinol can worsen symptoms initially due to the rapid release of uric acid from tissue breakdown. Colchicine (Colcrys) is a suitable choice for acute gout attacks as it helps reduce inflammation and pain by inhibiting neutrophil migration. Steroids and NSAIDs are also commonly used during acute gout flares to reduce inflammation and pain. Both options are appropriate choices for managing symptoms during an acute attack. Educationally, understanding the appropriate pharmacological management of gout based on the phase of the disease is crucial for nurses and nurse practitioners. Differentiating between medications suitable for acute attacks versus long-term management is essential to provide effective care and symptom relief for patients with gout.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse practitioner examines the skin of an elderly patient. Which finding below is NOT a benign lesion associated with the aging process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Dermatophytosis. Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection of the skin that is not a benign lesion associated with the normal aging process. A) Xerosis is a common benign finding in elderly patients due to decreased sebaceous gland activity and reduced skin hydration. B) Cherry angiomas and senile purpura are benign vascular lesions commonly seen in the elderly population as a result of aging-related changes in blood vessel structure and function. C) Senile keratosis and senile lentigines are also benign skin changes associated with aging, characterized by the development of benign growths and pigmented spots on the skin over time. Understanding the various skin changes associated with aging is crucial for healthcare providers to differentiate between benign age-related conditions and potentially harmful skin lesions. Recognizing these differences can help in providing appropriate care and treatment for elderly patients. It is important for healthcare providers to have a comprehensive understanding of dermatological conditions to accurately assess and manage skin issues in the aging population.
Question 3 of 5
Examination of the hair reveals a fine silky appearance. This finding may be seen in patients that have:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pharmacology and clinical assessment, the appearance of the hair can provide valuable clues to an individual's health status. In this case, a fine silky appearance of the hair is a characteristic finding associated with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland is overactive, leading to an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. This hormonal imbalance can manifest in various ways, one of which is changes in hair texture, resulting in a fine and silky appearance. Regarding the other options: - Hypothyroidism is more commonly associated with coarse, dry hair due to decreased thyroid hormone levels. - Type 2 diabetes does not typically have a direct effect on hair texture. - Celiac disease may lead to nutritional deficiencies impacting hair health, but it is not specifically linked to a fine silky appearance. Educationally, understanding these clinical correlations between hair appearance and systemic conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and managing patients effectively. It underscores the importance of thorough physical assessments in detecting underlying health issues, guiding appropriate treatment interventions, and promoting holistic patient care.
Question 4 of 5
Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding cranial nerves and their functions is crucial for assessing potential medication side effects on neurological functions. In this question, the correct answer is B) CN III, IV, VI. CN III (Oculomotor nerve) controls most of the eye movements, including raising the eyelid, constricting the pupil, and controlling most extraocular muscles. CN IV (Trochlear nerve) innervates the superior oblique muscle, contributing to eye movement. CN VI (Abducens nerve) controls the lateral rectus muscle, responsible for outward eye movement. Option A) CN II, III, IV is incorrect because CN II (Optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not eye movement. Option C) CN II, IV, VI is incorrect because CN II is not involved in eye movement. Option D) CN III, IV, VII is incorrect because CN VII (Facial nerve) controls facial muscles, not eye movements. Educationally, this question reinforces the importance of understanding the functions of cranial nerves in pharmacology to assess potential medication effects on eye movements and overall neurological function.
Question 5 of 5
Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the warning signs of headaches is crucial for healthcare providers to differentiate benign headaches from more serious conditions that require prompt investigation. In this question from the Jarvis Physical Assessment test bank, the correct answer is D) Headaches relieved with mild recurrent use of analgesics. This is the correct answer because headaches that are relieved with mild, recurrent use of analgesics may indicate medication overuse headaches (MOH), which can perpetuate a cycle of dependency on analgesics and mask underlying serious conditions. Option A) New onset after 50 is a warning sign because headaches that develop for the first time in individuals over 50 may be indicative of more concerning underlying causes such as temporal arteritis or brain tumors. Option B) Aggravated or relieved by change of position is important to investigate as it could point towards conditions like intracranial hypertension or positional headaches like cervicogenic headaches. Option C) Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver is also a concerning sign as it could indicate conditions such as intracranial mass lesions or Chiari malformation. Therefore, understanding these warning signs helps healthcare providers to appropriately assess and manage patients presenting with headaches, ensuring timely intervention when necessary.