ATI RN
Common Complications in Early Pregnancy Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a woman's 34th week of pregnancy, she is told that she has preeclampsia. The nurse knows which statement concerning preeclampsia is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Untreated preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus, including restriction of fetal growth. Edema is common in pregnancy but is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. Eclampsia can occur before or after delivery, not just before.
Question 2 of 5
How will the nurse respond to an 18-year-old client asking if they should start getting an annual Papanicolaou (Pap) test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice A is incorrect because the recommended age to start Pap testing is actually 21, not 25. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommend starting Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. Starting screening at age 25 would delay potentially life-saving screenings for cervical cancer. Choice B is the correct answer because it aligns with the current guidelines from ACOG and USPSTF. These organizations recommend that individuals with a cervix should begin Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. This age was chosen based on the risk of developing cervical cancer and the sensitivity of the test in younger individuals. Choice C is incorrect because it does not provide any guidance or information on when to start Pap testing. It leaves the client without a clear answer or direction on when to begin this important screening. Choice D is incorrect because it suggests waiting until the age of 30 to start Pap testing. While recommendations have changed in recent years to lengthen the interval between screenings for some individuals, starting at age 30 would still be too late according to current guidelines. In summary, the correct answer is B because it aligns with current guidelines from ACOG and USPSTF, recommending that individuals begin Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to either providing inaccurate information or lacking clear guidance on when to start Pap testing.
Question 3 of 5
When assessing the client further, which organism would be of highest concern at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV) would be of highest concern at this time when assessing the client further. HPV is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) worldwide and can lead to serious health issues such as genital warts and various types of cancer, including cervical cancer. A: Chlamydia is a common STI, but it is easily treatable with antibiotics and does not typically lead to serious long-term health issues if detected and treated promptly. It is important to address chlamydia, but it is not of the highest concern compared to HPV. C: Syphilis is a serious STI that can lead to long-term complications if left untreated, including damage to the heart, brain, and other organs. However, syphilis is less common than HPV and may not be of highest concern unless the client is exhibiting specific symptoms or risk factors. D: Gonorrhea is a common STI that can lead to complications if left untreated, such as pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility. While gonorrhea should be addressed promptly, it is not of the highest concern compared to HPV due to the increased risk of cancer associated with HPV. In conclusion, HPV is of highest concern when assessing the client further due to its high prevalence, potential for serious health issues, and the link to various types of cancer. It is important to educate the client about HPV, its transmission, prevention methods, and the availability of vaccines to reduce the risk of infection.
Question 4 of 5
How should the nurse respond to a 30-year-old woman asking if she should continue to have a Papanicolaou test every year?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Papanicolaou test, also known as a Pap smear, is a screening test for cervical cancer. The correct answer is A: You can now start getting screened with a Papanicolaou test every 3 years. This recommendation aligns with current guidelines from major medical organizations like the American Cancer Society and the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force. Starting at age 30, if a woman has had three consecutive normal Pap tests, with no abnormal results in the past 10 years, she can switch to having a Pap test every 3 years. This is because the risk of developing cervical cancer is lower in this age group, and screening more frequently may lead to unnecessary procedures and increased anxiety without providing additional benefit. Choice B: Screening should continue annually is incorrect because annual screening is not necessary for low-risk individuals and can lead to overdiagnosis and overtreatment. Choice C: Screening is no longer necessary after age 30 is incorrect because cervical cancer screening is recommended for women until around age 65-70, based on individual risk factors. Choice D: Screening should occur every 5 years is incorrect because the recommended interval for Pap tests is every 3 years for low-risk individuals. Extending the interval to 5 years may miss early signs of cervical cancer.
Question 5 of 5
Which question should the nurse ask to obtain the most valid information during a 24-hour diet recall?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most valid information during a 24-hour diet recall can be obtained by asking open-ended questions that encourage the patient to provide detailed information about their dietary intake. Choice A, "What did you put on your spaghetti?" is the most appropriate question as it allows the patient to freely list all the ingredients they added to their spaghetti without leading them towards a specific answer. This open-ended question promotes accurate and detailed recall of the patient's dietary choices. Choice B, "Was the spaghetti with meat sauce?" is a closed-ended question that limits the patient's response to a simple yes or no answer. This type of question may overlook additional ingredients or details that the patient might have included in their meal. Choice C, "Were there meatballs with the spaghetti?" is also a closed-ended question that restricts the patient's response to a specific detail. While it focuses on a specific ingredient, it may not capture other items the patient consumed with their spaghetti. Choice D, "Did you sprinkle cheese on your spaghetti?" is another closed-ended question that only targets one specific ingredient. While cheese may be a significant aspect of the patient's dietary intake, this question does not encourage the patient to provide a comprehensive list of all the ingredients they consumed during the meal. In conclusion, Choice A is the most appropriate question for obtaining valid information during a 24-hour diet recall as it allows for a detailed and unrestricted response from the patient. Open-ended questions are crucial in ensuring accurate and comprehensive dietary information is collected during a dietary recall session.