ATI RN
Age Specific Populations Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin (SHT2) excess will suggest that the client receive:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an atypical antipsychotic that targets multiple neurotransmitter systems, including serotonin. Serotonin excess is associated with symptoms like apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. Olanzapine, by blocking serotonin receptors, can help alleviate these symptoms in schizophrenia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Haloperidol and B: Chlorpromazine are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, not serotonin. They are more effective for positive symptoms of schizophrenia, not apathy and avolition. D: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for schizophrenia symptoms related to serotonin excess.
Question 2 of 5
The physician and advanced practice nurse are considering which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who demonstrates auditory hallucinations, apathy, anhedonia, and poor social functioning. The patient is overweight and has hypertension. Bearing these facts in mind, the drug the nurse should advocate would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aripiprazole (Ability). Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic that is less likely to cause weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other antipsychotics like clozapine (A), olanzapine (C), and haloperidol (B). Given that the patient is overweight and has hypertension, aripiprazole would be a better choice to minimize the risk of exacerbating these conditions. Additionally, aripiprazole has a lower risk of sedation, which can be beneficial for a patient with apathy and anhedonia, allowing for improved social functioning. Aripiprazole's unique mechanism of action as a partial dopamine agonist can also be advantageous for managing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Therefore, aripiprazole is the most suitable choice for this patient based on their clinical presentation and comorbidities.
Question 3 of 5
The plan of care for a patient who has demonstrated outbursts of physical violence against his family when frustrated, followed by periods of remorse after each outburst, would be considered successful when the patient:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because expressing frustration verbally instead of physically shows progress in managing emotions constructively. This approach helps prevent harm and promotes effective communication. Choice B doesn't address immediate behavior change. Choice C focuses on explaining behavior rather than changing it. Choice D is more about self-awareness and coping strategies, which is important but doesn't directly address the violent behavior.
Question 4 of 5
A rape victim asks a nurse, "How do I know whether this attack was my fault?" Which response by the nurse is therapeutic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates empathy and understanding towards the victim by helping them differentiate between vulnerability and blame. By supporting the victim in separating these issues, the nurse can empower them to recognize that the assault was not their fault, thus promoting healing and recovery. Choice B is incorrect because making decisions for the victim undermines their autonomy and does not address the victim's emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect as it offers false reassurance and does not address the victim's feelings of guilt or self-blame. Choice D is incorrect as it may come off as interrogative and could potentially retraumatize the victim by making them feel responsible for the assault.
Question 5 of 5
A victim of a violent rape was treated in the emergency department. As discharge preparation begins, the victim says softly, "I will never be the same again. I can't face my friends. There is no reason to go on." Select the nurse's most appropriate response.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you thinking of harming yourself?" This response is the most appropriate because the victim is expressing hopelessness and suicidal ideation, which indicates a need for immediate intervention and assessment for safety. By asking directly about self-harm, the nurse can assess the severity of the situation and take appropriate actions to ensure the victim's safety. Summary of other choices: B: This response minimizes the victim's feelings and does not address the seriousness of the situation. C: This response ignores the victim's emotional distress and does not address the potential for self-harm. D: This response dismisses the victim's current feelings and does not provide immediate support for the expressed hopelessness.