ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans. This can lead to problems with hygiene and urination. Epispadias (B) is a congenital malformation where the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra, causing difficulty with urination. Peyronie disease (D) is the development of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, leading to curvature during erection. In this case, the fixed and tight foreskin indicates phimosis.
Question 2 of 5
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood * test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.
Question 3 of 5
The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is : *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Oral ampicillin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its impact on the gut flora. This side effect is a result of the antibiotic's mechanism of action and is well-documented in clinical practice. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as loose bowel movements, constipation, and urticaria are not typically associated with oral ampicillin use.
Question 4 of 5
The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA. Rationale: 1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition. 2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine. In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.