ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
During a patient assessment, the nurse observes signs of distress and discomfort. What action should the nurse take to address the patient's needs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing signs of distress and discomfort in a patient during assessment is to offer emotional support and actively listen to the patient's concerns. Ignoring the patient's distress may lead to worsening of the patient's condition and can be detrimental to the patient's well-being. Documenting the findings and informing the healthcare provider later is important but should not be the immediate response when a patient is in distress. Administering pain medication without further assessment is also not appropriate as the nurse needs to understand the underlying cause of the distress before providing appropriate interventions. Offering emotional support and actively listening to the patient's concerns can help the nurse understand the patient's needs, provide comfort, and potentially address the root cause of the distress.
Question 2 of 9
A 30-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic ultrasound, a chocolate cyst is visualized within the ovary. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The scenario described in the question is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside of the uterus. Classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. The presence of a "chocolate cyst" (also known as an endometrioma) within the ovary on pelvic ultrasound is a characteristic finding in endometriosis. These cysts are filled with old blood, giving them a dark, chocolate-like appearance on imaging. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) typically presents with irregular periods, signs of hyperandrogenism, and multiple small follicles on ultrasound. Ovarian torsion and ovarian cyst rupture would present with acute-onset symptoms and may not necessarily be associated with cyclic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea as described in the
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.
Question 4 of 9
Qualitative researchers should choose their participants who can best meet the objectives of the study, who of the following best qualifies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When selecting participants for a qualitative research study, it is important to choose individuals who are able to articulate and reflect on the phenomenon being studied. This is crucial for gathering in-depth and rich data that can provide valuable insights for the study. Participants who can express their experiences, thoughts, and feelings clearly will allow the researcher to delve deeper into the research objectives and gain a more comprehensive understanding of the phenomenon under investigation. Selecting individuals with the ability to articulate and reflect ensures that the data collected will be meaningful and contribute significantly to the research findings. It is essential for qualitative researchers to prioritize such participants who can best meet the objectives of the study by offering detailed and insightful perspectives.
Question 5 of 9
As a newly 1icensed nurse employed in a tertiary hospital, you are required to attend Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program. When the training program is for the enrichment of nurses in the hospital, it is called __________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In-service training programs are specifically designed to provide continuing education and professional development for employees within a particular organization, in this case, a hospital. These programs are tailored to meet the needs of the staff and enhance their skills and knowledge within their work environment. Since the CPD program in the tertiary hospital is aimed at enriching and supporting the growth of the nurses' knowledge and expertise within the hospital setting, it falls under the category of an in-service training program.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for heart failure. Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during ACE inhibitor therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels closely during ACE inhibitor therapy because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in serum potassium levels, known as hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which in turn decreases aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone normally acts in the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water and excrete potassium. Therefore, when aldosterone secretion is decreased due to ACE inhibitor therapy, there can be an increase in potassium retention, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema. Physical examination reveals a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema, along with the physical examination findings of a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle, the most likely diagnosis is testicular torsion. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle, causing ischemia and severe pain. It is considered a surgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention to salvage the affected testicle. Prompt surgical detorsion is necessary to prevent irreversible testicular damage. While epididymitis, testicular trauma, and testicular tumors can also present with scrotal pain and swelling, the presence of a high-riding testicle in this context is highly suggestive of testicular torsion.
Question 8 of 9
What IMMEDIATE danger should the nurse anticipate post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the immediate danger that the nurse should anticipate is bleeding. TURP is a surgical procedure that involves removing portions of the prostate gland through the urethra. Due to the nature of the surgery and the rich blood supply to the prostate, bleeding is a common complication post-TURP. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening condition. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as blood in the urine, drop in hematocrit levels, hypotension, tachycardia, and signs of hypovolemic shock, is crucial to prevent any serious complications. Proper assessment, monitoring, and timely intervention are essential in managing post-TURP bleeding and preventing adverse outcomes.
Question 9 of 9
The last fire in the hospital was due to a malfunctioning equipment. The Fire extinguisher was nowhere to be found. What should have been practiced?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct practice in this situation would be to have a dedicated fire extinguisher in every strategic location throughout the hospital. Having fire extinguishers readily available in key areas ensures that they can be accessed quickly in case of a fire emergency. Placing one fire extinguisher between two units may not be sufficient as it may not be easily accessible in the event of a fire. Fire extinguishers should not be replaced with fire sensors as these serve different functions. Additionally, borrowing fire extinguishers may not be a safe or reliable practice, as they should be properly maintained and placed according to safety standards. Therefore, having dedicated fire extinguishers in every strategic location is the best practice to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the hospital.