During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.

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Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.

Question 2 of 9

A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client's mother states, 'That's not something to be stressed about!' Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stress can manifest as physical or psychological. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. Choice A is dismissive of the teenager's concerns and does not address the issue professionally. Choice B is incorrect as stress can result from various factors, not just loss. Choice C oversimplifies the relationship between physical condition and psychological well-being, neglecting the impact of mental stressors on overall health.

Question 3 of 9

Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

Question 4 of 9

A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, it is crucial not to agree with the client's delusions to avoid reinforcing false beliefs. Monitoring for signs of suicidal ideation is essential for safety. Promoting a regular sleep schedule can help stabilize mood. Discouraging the expression of negative feelings is not recommended as it is important to allow clients to express their emotions and feel heard.

Question 5 of 9

A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.

Question 6 of 9

A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

Question 7 of 9

How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement reflects a positive outlook on the job loss, viewing it as a challenge and an opportunity for personal growth. This perspective suggests that the client is resilient and adaptive, focusing on new possibilities rather than dwelling on the negative aspects of the situation. Choice D, 'Challenging,' is the correct characterization as it aligns with the client's positive appraisal. Choices A, 'Irrelevant,' B, 'Harm/loss,' and C, 'Threatening,' are incorrect as they do not capture the client's adaptive response to the stressor.

Question 8 of 9

A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare professional is conducting education on anxiety and stress management. Which of the following should be identified as the most important initial step in learning how to manage anxiety?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Awareness of factors creating stress. In managing anxiety, the first crucial step is recognizing and being aware of the factors that contribute to stress. Without this awareness, it becomes challenging to effectively address and manage anxiety. Diagnostic blood tests are not typically the initial step in managing anxiety; they may be used to rule out other medical conditions but are not the primary focus. While relaxation exercises can be helpful in managing anxiety, understanding the root causes of stress takes precedence. Identifying support systems is important but comes after recognizing the stress factors to develop a comprehensive management plan.

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