ATI RN
ATI Leadership Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 9
During a home safety assessment, a nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which observation should the nurse identify as a proper safety protocol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because having a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment ensures the client is monitoring the equipment regularly for safety. Choice B is incorrect as storing an oxygen tank on its side can be dangerous. Choice C is not directly related to oxygen safety. Choice D is incorrect because wool blankets can create static electricity, which is a fire hazard.
Question 2 of 9
An RN cared for a state senator during the day shift. Later that day he was having dinner with friends when the news mentioned the senator had been hospitalized. The RN’s friends asked if he knew what was wrong with the senator. Which ethical principle should the RN consider when replying?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Confidentiality. The RN should consider confidentiality when replying to his friends about the senator's condition. By maintaining confidentiality, the RN upholds the trust and privacy of the senator's medical information. Sharing such information breaches the ethical duty to protect patient privacy. A: Fidelity pertains to being faithful and loyal to one's commitments, not directly related to this situation. C: Veracity refers to truthfulness and honesty, but in this case, maintaining confidentiality takes precedence over disclosing the truth to friends. D: Accountability involves taking responsibility for one's actions, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
In order to assist an older diabetic patient to engage in moderate daily exercise, which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: A. Determine what type of activities the patient enjoys. Rationale: 1. By determining the patient's preferred activities, the nurse can tailor an exercise plan that is more likely to be enjoyable and sustainable for the patient. 2. Enjoyable activities increase motivation and adherence to exercise regimen, leading to better outcomes for the patient. 3. Personalized approach considers the patient's interests and abilities, promoting a positive experience with exercise. Summary: B: Reminding the patient about self-esteem doesn't address individual preferences for exercise. C: Teaching about glucose levels is important but not as crucial as personalizing the exercise plan. D: Providing a list of activities may not consider the patient's preferences and may not lead to sustained engagement.
Question 4 of 9
A technique used to eliminate negative behavior by ignoring the behavior is known as __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extinction. Extinction is a behavior modification technique where negative behavior is eliminated by withholding reinforcement previously maintaining it. Ignoring the behavior prevents it from being reinforced, leading to its decrease over time. Punishment (A) involves applying aversive consequences to reduce behavior. Shaping (C) is a technique to gradually modify behavior by reinforcing successive approximations. Equity (D) refers to fairness and equal treatment, not a behavior modification technique.
Question 5 of 9
A client is discussing the use of herbal supplements for health promotion with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of herbal supplement use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because ginkgo biloba is commonly used to improve memory and cognitive function, not to relieve nausea. Echinacea is known for immune support (A), feverfew for migraine prevention (B), and ginger for nausea relief (C). Understanding the intended use of each herb is crucial for safe and effective supplementation.
Question 6 of 9
A manager has been given a deadline to complete an assignment by the end of the day. It will take every minute left of the afternoon to complete. Which interventions illustrate assertiveness to minimize interruptions in order to meet the deadline? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the interventions mentioned demonstrate assertiveness in minimizing interruptions to meet the deadline. A: Allowing voicemail or turning off email notifications shows assertiveness in managing communication. B: Delegating tasks to staff nurses frees up the manager's time to focus on the assignment. C: Placing a 'Do Not Disturb' sign sets clear boundaries to avoid interruptions. In summary, each intervention in choice D actively addresses potential interruptions, allowing the manager to concentrate on completing the assignment within the deadline.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse manager has two employees with a longstanding conflict that is affecting the group's productivity and cohesiveness. She decides to meet with the employees in private, bring the conflict out into the open, and attempt to resolve it through knowledge and reason. Which conflict management strategy did she employ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Confrontation. In this scenario, the nurse manager directly addresses the conflict by meeting with the employees in private. Confrontation involves facing the conflict head-on, bringing it out into the open, and attempting to resolve it through open communication and discussion. By addressing the conflict directly, the nurse manager is using a proactive approach to resolve the issue. Summary of other choices: B: Suppression - This involves ignoring or avoiding the conflict, which is not what the nurse manager is doing in this scenario. C: Collaboration - While collaboration involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, the nurse manager is taking a more direct approach by confronting the conflict. D: Intervention - This typically involves a third party stepping in to mediate the conflict, which is not what is happening in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
When matching a job with an experienced RN, what is the first step in the selection process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Job analysis. This is the first step in the selection process as it involves identifying the specific duties, responsibilities, and requirements of the job. By conducting a job analysis, an organization can ensure that they have a clear understanding of what the job entails, which is crucial for effectively matching it with an experienced RN. Choice B, selection techniques, comes after job analysis and involves determining the most appropriate methods for evaluating candidates. Choice C, methods of recruiting, focuses on attracting candidates and is not the first step in the selection process. Choice D, assurance of legal requirements, is important but typically occurs later in the process after job analysis has been completed.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. This is because purulent drainage indicates the presence of infectious material that can easily be transmitted through direct contact. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can prevent the spread of infection to themselves and others. Droplet precautions (A) are used for pathogens spread through respiratory droplets, protective environment (B) is used for immunocompromised patients, and airborne precautions (C) are used for pathogens that remain suspended in the air. These precautions are not relevant to the situation described with purulent drainage.