ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a checkup, a 22-year-old woman tells the nurse that she uses an over-the-counter nasal spray for her allergies. She also reports that it does not work as well as it used to. The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because over-the-counter nasal sprays, especially those containing decongestants, can lead to rebound swelling when used for an extended period. Rebound swelling occurs when the nasal passages become more congested after the effects of the medication wear off. This can result in a cycle of dependency on the nasal spray to alleviate symptoms, leading to worsening congestion over time. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this potential risk and suggest alternative treatment options to address her allergies effectively without causing rebound swelling. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: Incorrect, as not all over-the-counter nasal sprays carry a risk of addiction. B: Incorrect, as switching to another brand may not address the underlying issue of rebound swelling. C: Incorrect, as continuous use of the nasal spray without addressing rebound swelling can exacerbate the problem.
Question 2 of 5
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 3 of 5
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 5 of 5
A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red and circular with central clearing, and is located across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lyme disease. The presentation of a red circular rash with central clearing, known as erythema migrans, following a hiking trip in the summer is highly indicative of Lyme disease. The specific distribution of the rash across the midriff and behind the knees aligns with typical areas where the rash appears in Lyme disease cases. This rash is a hallmark sign of early Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Other answer choices are incorrect because rubeola presents with a different rash pattern, an allergy to mosquito bites would not typically present in this manner, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever typically presents with a different rash appearance and distribution.