Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

During a bereavement group, one of the members states, “I should have been the one to die. My husband had so much to offer.” The member was expressing:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ambivalence and low self-esteem. The member's statement reflects conflicting emotions (ambivalence) about her worth compared to her husband's. This indicates low self-esteem, as she believes she is less valuable. Unresolved anger (B) would involve blaming her husband, not herself. A need for attention (C) is not evident, as she is sharing personal feelings. Depression (D) may be present, but the statement specifically points to self-deprecation, not just a general feeling of sadness.

Question 2 of 5

A patient living in community housing for the elderly says, “I don’t go to the senior citizens club. They play cards and talk about the past because that’s all they can do.” The nurse analyzes these remarks to represent:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thinking associated with ageism. This is because the patient's statement reflects a negative stereotype about older adults, assuming they are limited to playing cards and reminiscing about the past. Ageism involves discrimination or prejudice based on someone's age, which can lead to stereotyping and marginalization. A: Failure to achieve developmental tasks - This choice does not directly relate to the patient's statement about ageism. B: Hypercritical behavior - The patient's statement does not indicate hypercritical behavior, but rather a biased perspective on aging. C: Paranoid thinking - The patient's statement does not demonstrate paranoid thinking, but rather a biased view of older adults based on ageist beliefs. In summary, the correct answer is D as the patient's remarks reflect ageist thinking, while the other choices do not align with the content of the patient's statement.

Question 3 of 5

During the first family therapy session, the mother of a child being treated for truancy and emotional outbursts asks the nurse, “Why are you bothering to ask the rest of us questions? My son is the one with the problems.” The best response for the nurse would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because involving the entire family in therapy sessions allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the family dynamics and how they may be contributing to the child's issues. By including all family members, the nurse can gather diverse perspectives and insights that can inform the treatment plan. This approach also promotes family unity and collaboration in addressing the child's problems. Option B is not the best response as it lacks a clear rationale for involving the whole family. Option C, while partially true, does not directly address the question raised by the mother. Option D emphasizes the importance of every family member's perceptions but does not specifically address the benefits of involving the entire family in therapy sessions.

Question 4 of 5

Which statement best explains how a mother of several children should prepare to help them cope with the loss of a dear aunt?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because each child will indeed grieve in a unique way and on their own timetable. This approach recognizes the individuality of each child's emotions and coping mechanisms. By understanding and respecting their differences, the mother can provide tailored support and comfort. Option B oversimplifies the grieving process and ignores the complexity of individual responses. Option C generalizes the stages of grief for all people and does not account for variations in how children may process loss. Option D incorrectly suggests that extreme reactions are more common in young children, which is not necessarily true as grief responses can vary widely among children.

Question 5 of 5

About an hour after the patient has ECT, he complains of having a headache. The nurse should:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer an as needed (prn) dose of acetaminophen. After ECT, it is common for patients to experience headaches as a side effect. Administering acetaminophen will help alleviate the headache and provide relief for the patient. It is important to address the patient's discomfort promptly and effectively. Choice A is incorrect because headaches after ECT are a common side effect and do not typically require immediate physician notification. Choice C is incorrect as progressive relaxation may not address the immediate headache symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect as physical activities may exacerbate the headache rather than provide relief. Administering acetaminophen is the most appropriate and efficient intervention in this situation.

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