ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing INR, so it affects anticoagulation. Disulfiram also potentiates warfarin via CYP inhibition, enhancing effect. Fluconazole similarly boosts warfarin levels, a significant interaction. Benzodiazepines have no major effect on anticoagulant therapy, a true statement, as they're metabolized differently. Metronidazole, like fluconazole, increases warfarin effect. Benzodiazepines' lack of interaction makes them safer in this context, a key consideration in polypharmacy.
Question 2 of 5
The student nurse asks the nursing instructor why drug plateaus occur with medications. What are the best responses by the nursing instructor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Plateaus occur when receptors are saturated-max effect is reached (e.g., morphine), a pharmacodynamic limit. 100% relief isn't guaranteed-plateau is effect ceiling. Resistance (tolerance) builds over time, not instant. Losing efficacy implies degradation, not saturation. Receptor occupancy explains the plateau, a core concept.
Question 3 of 5
Which explanation best indicates why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. An emergent appendectomy is performed. Postsurgically, he is given an NSAID along with morphine for pain control. Which of the following NSAIDs is commonly used as an adjunct to opioids postsurgically?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Post-appendectomy pain management often combines opioids like morphine with NSAIDs for synergy. Acetaminophen is an analgesic but not a true NSAID (lacks significant anti-inflammatory action). Celecoxib , a COX-2 inhibitor, is less common acutely due to cost and milder effect. Ibuprofen is effective but less potent parenterally. Ketorolac , a potent NSAID, is widely used postsurgically-available IV/IM, it reduces inflammation and pain, complementing morphine's central action. Naproxen (E) is oral, less ideal acutely. Ketorolac's rapid onset and efficacy in reducing opioid requirements make it standard. Its short-term use minimizes GI risks, aligning with surgical protocols, distinguishing it from other options for acute postoperative pain control.
Question 5 of 5
A 52-year-old man with organic impotence is in the preoperative holding area before surgery. He is given intravenous vancomycin over 20 min and begins to develop fever, chills, and redness at the injection site. What is the most appropriate course of action for the physician to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin's rapid infusion causes red man syndrome (fever, chills, redness) is discontinue . Anticholinesterase is irrelevant. Corticosteroids treat severe reactions, not initial step. Intubation is excessive. Slowing infusion (E) is preventive, not reactive. Stopping vancomycin halts histamine release, resolving symptoms.