ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Drugs are excreted from the body primarily via the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: kidneys. The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for excreting drugs from the body through urine. They filter the blood and remove waste products, including drugs, through the process of urine formation. The lungs primarily excrete gases and volatile substances, not drugs. The small intestines are mainly involved in absorption of nutrients, not drug excretion. The spleen is part of the immune system and does not play a direct role in drug excretion.
Question 2 of 9
A Gram-negative, motile, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a stool sample of a patient with diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium suggests a curved rod morphology, typical of Campylobacter jejuni. Step 2: Motility is a characteristic of Campylobacter species. Step 3: Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of bacterial diarrhea in humans. Step 4: Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not typically associated with comma-shaped morphology. Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli are not comma-shaped.
Question 3 of 9
The specific treatment of the Clostridium difficile - associated post antibiotic diarrhea is based on all the strategies EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Early application of gentamicin is not recommended as a specific treatment for C. difficile-associated post antibiotic diarrhea because it does not have efficacy against C. difficile. B: Metronidazole is recommended as first-line treatment for mild to moderate C. difficile infection. C: Stopping antibiotic treatment and observing the clinical response for 48 hours is not a recommended strategy as prompt treatment is crucial in C. difficile infection. D: Vancomycin per os is an appropriate treatment for severe C. difficile infection. In summary, A is incorrect because gentamicin is not effective against C. difficile, while B, C, and D are potential treatment strategies based on severity of the infection.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The given characteristics match this bacterium: Gram-positive diplococci, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, Enterococcus faecalis is not alpha-hemolytic, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is not Gram-positive diplococci.
Question 5 of 9
Which one of the following statements about the cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes is true?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the structure of the cytoplasmic membrane in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is fundamentally different. Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, while gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane with an additional outer membrane. This key difference is crucial for various functions such as antibiotic resistance and nutrient transport. Rationale for the incorrect choices: A: Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a double-layered one. C: Prokaryotes do have a cytoplasmic membrane, which is essential for maintaining cell integrity and regulating the passage of molecules. D: Gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a three-layered one.
Question 6 of 9
In a microslide of the patient's regional lymph node stained with Giemsa method a doctor detected thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils with pointed tips, 10-13 micrometers in length, pale pink in color. In this case they can be identified as infectious agents of the following disease:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leishmaniasis. The description of thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils, 10-13 micrometers in length, and pale pink color matches the characteristics of Leishmania parasites seen in Giemsa-stained samples. Leishmania parasites are known to have a distinctive appearance with pointed tips and a specific size range. Syphilis (choice A) is caused by Treponema pallidum, which appears as tightly coiled spirochetes, not tendrils. Trypanosomiasis (choice B) is caused by Trypanosoma parasites, which have a different morphology and staining pattern. Relapsing fever (choice D) is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which does not match the description given. Therefore, the correct choice is C as the description aligns closely with the characteristic features of Leishmania parasites.
Question 7 of 9
A 42-year-old patient with gastric ulcer has a disbalance between the aggressive and defensive factors. Which of the following factors contributes to the development of gastric ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a major cause of gastric ulcers by disrupting the balance between aggressive (acid, pepsin) and defensive (mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins) factors in the stomach lining. H. pylori infection leads to inflammation, weakening the protective mucosal barrier, making the stomach more susceptible to damage. Choices B, C, and D are defensive factors that help protect the stomach lining and prevent ulcer formation, so they do not contribute to the development of gastric ulcers.
Question 8 of 9
A 13 year old child complains about poor appetite, pain in the right subcostal area. Microscopical examination of duodenal contents revealed big pyriform cells with two nuclei. What microorganism was revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The presence of big pyriform cells with two nuclei in the duodenal contents indicates Giardia lamblia infection. This parasite is commonly found in contaminated water and causes symptoms like poor appetite and abdominal pain. Trichomonas, Amoeba, Trypanosoma, and Toxoplasma are not typically associated with these findings and symptoms. Therefore, Lamblia is the most likely microorganism based on the clinical presentation and microscopic examination results.
Question 9 of 9
Bacillus cereus may cause?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bacillus cereus is known to cause food poisoning due to the production of toxins in contaminated food. It is not the causative agent of anthrax or endocarditis. The correct answer is B because Bacillus cereus is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It's essential to understand the specific characteristics and pathogenicity of Bacillus cereus to differentiate it from other bacterial infections.