ATI RN
Psychotropic Medications 101 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Drug therapy with thioridazine (Mellaril) shouldn't exceed a daily dose of 800 mg to prevent which adverse reaction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
Psychosis can be a symptom of which of these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurse's fingers should be placed in the depression ________ of the ear.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anterior to the tragus. To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurse's fingers should be placed in front of the tragus, as it marks the location of the joint. Placing the fingers anterior to the tragus allows for accurate assessment of the joint's movement and tenderness. Explanation for other choices: A: Distal to the helix - Incorrect, as the tragus is not distal to the helix. B: Proximal to the helix - Incorrect, as the tragus is not proximal to the helix. D: Posterior to the tragus - Incorrect, as placing the fingers posterior to the tragus would not allow for proper palpation of the temporomandibular joint.
Question 4 of 5
A teenage girl has arrived complaining of pain in her left wrist. She was playing basketball when she fell and landed on her left hand. The nurse examines her hand and would expect a fracture if the girl complains of a:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sharp pain that increases with movement. This is indicative of a possible fracture as movement aggravates the pain due to the bones rubbing against each other. A dull ache (A) is less likely to indicate a fracture. Deep pain in the wrist (B) is vague and does not specifically suggest a fracture. Dull throbbing pain that increases with rest (D) is not typical of a fracture, as rest typically alleviates pain in fractures.
Question 5 of 5
During an examination, the nurse asks a patient to bend forward from the waist and notices that the patient has lateral tilting. When his leg is raised straight up, the patient complains of a pain going down his buttock into his leg. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herniated nucleus pulposus. When the patient bends forward and experiences pain going down the buttock into the leg, it suggests sciatic nerve irritation. This is a classic sign of a herniated nucleus pulposus, where the disc material impinges on the nerve root. Other choices are incorrect because scoliosis (A) refers to a lateral curvature of the spine, not associated with leg pain. Meniscus tear (B) is a knee joint injury, not related to the described symptoms. Spasm of paravertebral muscles (D) may cause back pain but not radiating pain down the leg.