Drug combinations recommended to be avoided include all, except

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Pediatric Cardiovascular Disorders Nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

Drug combinations recommended to be avoided include all, except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders, it is crucial for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of drug combinations to avoid to prevent adverse drug interactions and potential harm to pediatric patients. Option A) Metronidazole and Warfarin: This combination is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to the potential interaction between metronidazole, an antibiotic, and warfarin, an anticoagulant. Therefore, this combination should be avoided. Option B) Furosemide and Gentamicin: This combination is known to increase the risk of ototoxicity, particularly in pediatric patients. Both furosemide, a diuretic, and gentamicin, an antibiotic, can individually cause hearing loss, and when used together, the risk is heightened. Option C) Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers and beta blockers: This combination is generally safe and is often used together in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders to manage conditions such as hypertension and certain heart conditions. Therefore, this combination does not need to be avoided. Option D) Omega-3 and Antiplatelets: Omega-3 supplements and antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, are often used together for their cardiovascular benefits. This combination is generally considered safe and effective in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. In conclusion, option D is the correct answer as the combination of Omega-3 and Antiplatelets is not recommended to be avoided in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. The other options have known interactions or risks that make them combinations to be cautious about or avoid in pediatric patients. Understanding these drug combinations is essential for safe and effective pediatric nursing care in the management of cardiovascular disorders.

Question 2 of 5

Isovolumic contraction phase of ventricular systole occurs during which of the following phases of central venous pressure, approximately

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the cardiac cycle is vital. The isovolumic contraction phase of ventricular systole occurs during the phase from the trough of the x wave to the peak of the c wave in central venous pressure (CVP) tracings. This is because the isovolumic contraction phase represents the time when the ventricles are contracting, building up pressure to open the semilunar valves and begin ejection of blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta. Option A) From the nadir of the y descent to the peak of the a wave is incorrect because this phase corresponds to atrial contraction and ventricular relaxation. Option B) From the peak of the a wave to the trough of the x wave is incorrect as it relates to atrial contraction and early diastole. Option D) From the peak of the c wave to the trough of the x' descent is incorrect as it represents isovolumic relaxation, not isovolumic contraction. Understanding the relationship between cardiac events and CVP waveforms is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. By knowing when each phase occurs, nurses can better assess cardiac function and respond appropriately to changes in clinical status.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following reduces intensity of first heart sound (S1) except

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the factors that can impact the intensity of the first heart sound (S1) is crucial for accurate assessment and diagnosis. In this scenario, option B, Calcific mitral stenosis, is the correct answer as it can lead to an increased intensity of S1 due to the restricted opening of the mitral valve causing a louder closure sound. Option A, Mechanical ventilation, can reduce S1 intensity due to the altered mechanics of the heart during ventilation, affecting the timing and quality of the heart sounds. Option C, Short PR interval, is associated with conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome but does not directly impact S1 intensity. Option D, LV dysfunction, can also affect S1 intensity due to changes in the closure of the mitral valve, leading to a softer S1 sound. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing how various pathophysiological conditions can influence cardiac auscultation findings in pediatric patients. It reinforces the need for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of pediatric pharmacology, particularly in the context of cardiovascular disorders, to provide safe and effective care to young patients.

Question 4 of 5

In the electrocardiogram of a 40-year old male, the QRS amplitude in lead I and aVF measured (+) 10 and (-)10mV respectively. The frontal QRS axis is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric cardiovascular nursing, understanding electrocardiogram (ECG) interpretation is crucial for assessing cardiac function. The correct answer, option B) (-) 45°, is determined by the QRS amplitudes in lead I and aVF being equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. This indicates an axis deviation towards lead aVF, resulting in a negative angle. Option A) (+) 15° is incorrect because the QRS amplitudes in lead I and aVF are equal but have opposite polarities, suggesting an axis deviation towards lead aVF, resulting in a negative angle, not a positive one. Option C) (-) 75° and option D) (-) 90° are incorrect as they do not account for the equal but oppositely directed QRS amplitudes seen in lead I and aVF. These angles would not align with the data provided in the question. In an educational context, understanding how to interpret ECG findings in pediatric patients is essential for assessing cardiac health and diagnosing cardiovascular disorders accurately. By comprehensively analyzing ECG data, nurses can provide appropriate care and interventions to pediatric patients with cardiovascular conditions.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is a vasodilator?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders nursing, understanding the pharmacology of vasodilators is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. In this question, the correct answer is C) Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 is a vasodilator that acts by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. This mechanism of action helps to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart, making it an important drug in the management of conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus in neonates. Option A) Thromboxane A2 is a vasoconstrictor that promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure and decreased blood flow. Option B) Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor that plays a role in regulating vascular tone and blood pressure. Option D) Urotensin II is a peptide vasoconstrictor involved in the regulation of vascular tone and blood pressure. Educationally, knowing the pharmacological properties of different vasoactive substances is essential for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. Understanding the specific effects of vasodilators and vasoconstrictors helps nurses make informed decisions when administering medications and monitoring patient responses. By grasping these concepts, nurses can contribute to improved outcomes and better quality of care for pediatric patients with cardiovascular conditions.

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