ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Drug absorption following oral administration:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Most drugs are absorbed through passive diffusion across the gastrointestinal tract, following a concentration gradient, especially non-ionized forms.
Question 2 of 9
What is the therapeutic range for lithium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The therapeutic range for lithium is generally considered to be 0.6-1.2 mmol/L (which is equivalent to 0.6-1.2 mEq/L). However, some sources may state a slightly wider range of 0.5-1.5 mEq/L. It is important to note that individual patient factors and clinical judgment should also be considered when interpreting lithium levels. Levels below the therapeutic range may be subtherapeutic and not provide the desired therapeutic effect, while levels above the range may result in toxicity and adverse effects. Monitoring lithium levels regularly is important to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range.
Question 3 of 9
Two days after admission, the nurse is reviewing laboratory results of the patient. Which is the most common electrolyte finding resulting from the administration of furosemide (Lasix)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common electrolyte finding resulting from the administration of furosemide (Lasix) is hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys. This results in increased excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. Hypokalemia can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and fatigue. Therefore, patients receiving furosemide should be closely monitored for potassium levels, and supplementation may be necessary to prevent and treat hypokalemia.
Question 4 of 9
Carbidopa when combined with levodopa:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Carbidopa enhances levodopa in Parkinson's. It inhibits peripheral (not cerebral) dopa decarboxylase, reducing levodopa breakdown outside the brain, allowing more to cross the blood-brain barrier. This reduces peripheral dopamine, minimizing nausea and hypotension, permitting lower levodopa doses, a true statement. It's compatible with warfarin, doesn't delay bradykinesia improvement (enhances onset), and doesn't abolish on-off effects (related to disease progression). Reduced side effects improve tolerability, a key therapeutic strategy.
Question 5 of 9
Regarding NSAIDS:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: At high doses, aspirin shifts to zero-order kinetics, not first-order, due to saturated metabolism, so that's false. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX, not reversibly, distinguishing it from other NSAIDs, making that false. At low doses (≤2 g/day), aspirin retains uric acid, not reduces it (uricosuric at >4 g/day), so that's incorrect. All NSAIDs, including aspirin and ibuprofen, distribute into synovial fluid with repeated dosing, a true statement, aiding arthritis treatment. Combining ibuprofen and aspirin reduces, not increases, efficacy due to competition. Synovial penetration is key to their anti-inflammatory action in joints.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is receiving 10 mEq of potassium chloride in 100 mL of normal saline intravenously (IV) to infuse over 1 hour via infusion pump. The patient has a 22-gauge peripheral IV in his right forearm and reports pain at the insertion site; the nurse notes that the site is reddened, warm, and tender to the touch. Which action would the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of pain, redness, warmth, and tenderness at the IV site indicate possible infiltration or phlebitis, which can lead to tissue damage or infection. The nurse should stop the infusion and discontinue the IV immediately to prevent further complications. Aspirating and slowing the rate (A) is inappropriate in this situation. Inserting a central line (B) is not the immediate priority. Applying warm compresses (D) may be done after discontinuing the IV, but it is not the first action.
Question 7 of 9
Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range for phenobarbital (luminal) when used for anxiety is typically between 5-10 mcg/ml. This range is considered effective in controlling anxiety symptoms while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Higher serum levels (options B, C, D) may increase the risk of adverse effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, and overdose. Therefore, monitoring the serum levels of phenobarbital is essential to ensure the medication is at a therapeutic range for the intended treatment.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse administers calcium intravenously (IV) to the client. What will a key assessment by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV calcium risks infiltration-site assessment (e.g., swelling) ensures safety, per protocol. Glucose/potassium aren't directly tied-edema is secondary. Site check prevents complications, per administration.
Question 9 of 9
When the nurse is reviewing a list of medications taken by an 88-year-old patient, the patient says, 'I get dizzy when I stand up.' She also states that she has nearly fainted 'a time or two' in the afternoons. Her systolic blood pressure drops 15 points when she stands up. Which type of medication may be responsible for these effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension, characterized by dizziness and a drop in blood pressure upon standing, is a common side effect of antihypertensive medications. These medications lower blood pressure, which can lead to reduced cerebral perfusion and dizziness when the patient changes positions. NSAIDs, cardiac glycosides, and anticoagulants are less likely to cause orthostatic hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should consider antihypertensive medications as the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms and assess the need for dosage adjustments or alternative treatments.