ATI RN
Introduction to the Pharmacology of CNS Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Droperidol, a neuroleptic, belongs to following class of drugs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Droperidol, a neuroleptic medication, belongs to the class of drugs known as Butyrophenones. This class of drugs, including haloperidol and droperidol, exerts their pharmacological effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, primarily D2 receptors. Butyrophenones are often used for their antiemetic and antipsychotic properties. Option A, Phenothiazines, is incorrect because drugs like chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine belong to this class, not droperidol. Phenothiazines act by blocking dopamine, histamine, muscarinic, and alpha-adrenergic receptors. Option B, Thioxanthines, is also incorrect as drugs like flupenthixol and zuclopenthixol fall into this category. Thioxanthines primarily block dopamine receptors. Option D, Benzamides, is not the correct answer either. Drugs like metoclopramide and sulpiride are examples of benzamides, which mainly affect dopamine receptors in the gastrointestinal system. Understanding the classification of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about drug selection, dosage, and potential adverse effects. Knowing the specific class of a drug like droperidol helps in predicting its pharmacological actions and potential interactions with other medications. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective patient care in clinical practice.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following barbiturates is a long acting barbiturate (i.e. has a longer onset and duration of action)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of the pharmacology of CNS drugs, understanding the characteristics of different barbiturates is crucial. In this question, the correct answer is A) Phenobarbital, as it is a long-acting barbiturate. Phenobarbital has a longer onset and duration of action compared to the other options. This is due to its unique pharmacokinetic properties, including a longer half-life and slower metabolism in the body. This makes it suitable for use in conditions requiring sustained anticonvulsant effects, such as epilepsy. Secobarbital and Amobarbital are short to intermediate-acting barbiturates, which have a faster onset and shorter duration of action. They are commonly used for sedation and anesthesia due to their rapid effects. Choosing "All of the above" (Option D) is incorrect because not all the options listed are long-acting barbiturates. This demonstrates the importance of understanding the differences in pharmacokinetics among CNS drugs to make appropriate clinical decisions. Educationally, this question highlights the significance of knowing the specific properties of different drugs within the same class to tailor treatment plans effectively. It reinforces the need for healthcare professionals to have a solid foundation in pharmacology to ensure safe and efficient patient care.
Question 3 of 5
In small intestine, morphine particularly affects
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Introduction to the Pharmacology of CNS Drugs is a crucial subject in understanding the effects of various drugs on the central nervous system. In this context, the question regarding the specific impact of morphine on the small intestine is significant for understanding the drug's pharmacokinetics and potential side effects. The correct answer is C) Both (a) and (b) - Duodenum and Ileum. Morphine affects the small intestine, including both the duodenum and ileum. Morphine slows down peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to constipation, a common side effect of opioid use. This effect is not limited to a specific part of the small intestine but rather affects the overall function. Option A) Duodenum and Option B) Ileum alone are incorrect because morphine's impact is not isolated to one specific part of the small intestine. It affects the entire organ due to its systemic effects on opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. Option D) Does not affect the small intestine is also incorrect as morphine is well-known for its impact on the gastrointestinal system, particularly causing constipation through its actions in the small intestine. Educationally, understanding the effects of morphine on the small intestine provides insight into the broader impact of opioids on the body. It highlights the importance of monitoring and managing gastrointestinal side effects in patients receiving opioid therapy, contributing to safe and effective patient care. This knowledge is vital for healthcare professionals, especially those involved in pain management and pharmacology, to ensure the appropriate use of opioids and mitigate potential adverse effects.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic agents is useful to produce sedation prior to anaesthesia and is also helpful in reducing the amount of inhalation anaesthetic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) All the above. Intravenous anaesthetic agents play a crucial role in preparing patients for anesthesia and reducing the amount of inhalation anesthetic needed during a procedure. Ultra-short acting barbiturates, such as thiopental, are useful for producing sedation before anesthesia induction. Benzodiazepines, like midazolam, also provide sedation and help reduce anxiety prior to anesthesia. Opioid analgesic anesthesia agents, such as fentanyl, provide pain relief and can complement the effects of other sedatives during anesthesia. Ultra-short acting barbiturates alone may not provide the full spectrum of effects needed for sedation and anesthesia, hence option A is incorrect. Option B, benzodiazepines, while useful for sedation, may not provide the full range of effects required for anesthesia induction. Option C, opioid analgesic anesthesia, focuses more on pain relief rather than sedation prior to anesthesia. Understanding the different classes of intravenous anaesthetic agents and their specific roles is crucial for healthcare professionals working in anesthesia. It ensures safe and effective patient care by tailoring sedation and anesthesia to individual patient needs, optimizing outcomes and minimizing risks associated with anesthesia administration.
Question 5 of 5
Regarding inhalational anaesthetics, which statement is true?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question on inhalational anaesthetics, the correct statement is A) Enflurane is proconvulsant. This is true because enflurane, along with other halogenated inhalational anaesthetics like halothane and isoflurane, has been associated with lowering the seizure threshold, leading to a proconvulsant effect. Option B) Isoflurane is the inhalational agent of choice in IHD (Ischemic Heart Disease) is incorrect. While isoflurane is commonly used in cardiac anesthesia due to its myocardial depressant effects, it is not specifically the agent of choice in ischemic heart disease. Option C) Nitrous oxide is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester is incorrect. Nitrous oxide can diffuse rapidly across the placenta and has the potential to cause fetal hypoxia, making it contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Option D) Halothane has a MAC value of 75% is incorrect. Halothane's MAC value is around 0.75%, not 75%. MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration) is a measure of anesthetic potency, with lower values indicating higher potency. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological properties of inhalational anaesthetics is crucial for safe and effective patient care during anesthesia administration. Knowledge of their effects on various organ systems, including the central nervous system, helps healthcare providers make informed decisions and provide optimal care to patients undergoing anesthesia.