DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: S phase. During the S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication takes place to ensure each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic material. This phase is characterized by the synthesis of new DNA strands. In contrast, choices A, B, and C (G phase, Prophase, Metaphase) are not associated with DNA replication. The G phase is a period of cell growth, Prophase is the initial stage of mitosis, and Metaphase is when chromosomes align. Therefore, the S phase is the specific stage where DNA replication occurs, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpangina. Coxsackie Viruses are known to cause Herpangina, which is characterized by sore throat, fever, and painful blisters in the mouth and throat. This is because Coxsackie Viruses typically infect the throat and mouth mucosa. Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A) is commonly caused by Adenoviruses, not Coxsackie Viruses. Mumps (C) is caused by the Mumps virus, a completely different virus. Poliomyelitis (D) is caused by the Poliovirus, not Coxsackie Viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known pathogenicity of Coxsackie Viruses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: H antigen. Flagellar antigen is typically referred to as the H antigen in bacteria. Flagella are the whip-like structures used for movement in bacteria, and the H antigen is specifically associated with the flagella. The other choices (A: D antigen, C: K antigen, D: F antigen) are not related to flagella in bacteria and are commonly associated with other types of antigens in bacterial classification.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene and is a Gram-positive rod that produces spores and gas in tissue infections. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not gas gangrene. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci and does not produce spores or gas in the context of gas gangrene. Therefore, based on the characteristics of the microorganism isolated from the wound sample, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: endogenous infections. This term refers to infections caused by microorganisms that are normally present in or on the body. In the context of vaginal infections, an overgrowth of the normal flora can lead to an imbalance and result in infection. Choice B, chronic infections, does not specifically address the source of the infection. Choice C, iatrogenic infections, refers to infections caused by medical intervention, not normal flora overgrowth. Choice D, fatal infections, is incorrect as it does not describe the nature or source of the infection. In summary, the term "endogenous infections" accurately describes the scenario of vaginal infections caused by an overgrowth of normal flora.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium botulinum produces the botulinum toxin, which causes botulism. This bacteria thrives in anaerobic environments and can contaminate improperly canned foods. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not botulism. Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not botulism. Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning through various toxins, but not botulism. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium botulinum as it specifically produces the botulinum toxin responsible for botulism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.