ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: S phase. During the S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication takes place to ensure each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic material. This phase is characterized by the synthesis of new DNA strands. In contrast, choices A, B, and C (G phase, Prophase, Metaphase) are not associated with DNA replication. The G phase is a period of cell growth, Prophase is the initial stage of mitosis, and Metaphase is when chromosomes align. Therefore, the S phase is the specific stage where DNA replication occurs, making it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a deep tissue infection had Gram-negative rods isolated from the wound culture. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.
Question 3 of 9
A male patient has been diagnosed with gastric ulcer. Bacteriological examination of biopsy material from the affected part of stomach revealed small colonies of gram-negative, oxide reductase-positive flexibacteria that grew on the chocolate agar on the fifth day. Which of the following microorganisms is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent of gastric ulcers. Here's the rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is commonly associated with gastric ulcers. 2. It is a gram-negative bacterium that grows on chocolate agar and is oxide reductase-positive. 3. The slow growth on the fifth day is characteristic of H. pylori. 4. Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter fetus are not typically associated with gastric ulcers. 5. Mycoplasma hominis is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is not commonly found in gastric ulcers.
Question 4 of 9
Mycoplasma species lack:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. This is because they have a flexible cell membrane that provides structural support instead of a rigid cell wall. The absence of a cell wall allows them to be pleomorphic and gives them resistance to certain antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis. Plasma membrane (B), DNA (C), and ribosomes (D) are present in Mycoplasma species, so they are not the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
The flagellar antigen of the bacteria is known as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: H antigen. Flagellar antigen is typically referred to as the H antigen in bacteria. Flagella are the whip-like structures used for movement in bacteria, and the H antigen is specifically associated with the flagella. The other choices (A: D antigen, C: K antigen, D: F antigen) are not related to flagella in bacteria and are commonly associated with other types of antigens in bacterial classification.
Question 6 of 9
A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.
Question 7 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
Question 8 of 9
Polyclonal antibodies can respond to multiple antigens:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cells, each recognizing a different epitope on an antigen. Therefore, they can respond to multiple antigens. This diversity in recognition allows polyclonal antibodies to bind to various targets, making option A true. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of polyclonal antibodies' ability to recognize multiple antigens.
Question 9 of 9
During sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore it was revealed that the air had high concentration of sanitary meaningful microorganisms. What microorganisms are these?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus. These microorganisms are commonly found in high concentrations during sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore due to their prevalence in the environment. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are known to be significant pathogens that can cause various infections in humans. Rationale: 1. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are common pathogens found in the environment and can easily contaminate air in enclosed spaces like a drugstore. 2. Both microorganisms are considered to be of sanitary significance as they can cause infections and are indicators of poor hygiene and sanitation. 3. Diphtheritic and tuberculous bacilli (Choice B) are not typically associated with air contamination in a drugstore setting. 4. Colibacilli and blue pus bacilli (Choice C) are more commonly found in fecal