Distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery may produce:

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Question 1 of 5

Distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery may produce:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Distal occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery results in homonymous hemianopia because this artery supplies the occipital lobe, responsible for processing visual information. When occluded, a specific pattern of visual field loss occurs in both eyes. Contralateral hemiplegia is associated with occlusion of the middle cerebral artery, which supplies motor and sensory areas of the brain. Dysarthria is typically seen with lesions affecting the cerebellum or cranial nerves involved in speech production, not the posterior cerebral artery. Cerebellar ataxia is associated with lesions affecting the cerebellum, not the occipital lobe. Understanding the vascular supply to different brain regions is essential in diagnosing and managing neurological conditions. This knowledge helps healthcare professionals localize lesions based on presenting symptoms and select appropriate interventions to optimize patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

Duchenne muscular dystrophy:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), option D) "Is associated with speech delay" is the correct answer. DMD is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Speech delay is a common feature in children with DMD due to the involvement of muscles required for speech production. This delay is often attributed to weakness in the muscles used for articulation and breathing support. Option A) "Has an association with malignant hyperpyrexia" is incorrect because there is no direct association between DMD and malignant hyperpyrexia. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication associated with certain anesthesia drugs and muscle disorders, but not specifically with DMD. Option B) "Is a reason for never running properly" is incorrect because while children with DMD may have difficulty with motor skills and running due to muscle weakness, it is not the primary defining characteristic of the condition. Option C) "Is better diagnosed with muscle biopsy than gene probe" is also incorrect. While muscle biopsy can show characteristic changes in muscle tissue indicative of DMD, the most definitive and commonly used diagnostic method for DMD is genetic testing, particularly through gene probes or sequencing. Educationally, understanding the clinical manifestations and diagnostic considerations of DMD is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses involved in the care of pediatric patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of DMD, such as speech delay, can lead to early identification and interventions, improving outcomes and quality of life for affected individuals and their families.

Question 3 of 5

Consequences of a median nerve section in the ante-cubital fossa include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis. When the median nerve is severed in the ante-cubital fossa, it results in the paralysis of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is responsible for the abduction of the thumb. This leads to significant functional impairment of the hand. Option A) Complete paralysis of pronation is incorrect because pronation is controlled by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus muscles, which are innervated by the median and anterior interosseous nerves, not the median nerve alone. Option B) Loss of sensation over palmar aspect of middle finger is incorrect as this is typically associated with injury to the ulnar nerve, not the median nerve. Option C) Wasting of hypothenar eminence is incorrect because this is a consequence of injury to the ulnar nerve, which innervates the intrinsic hand muscles responsible for the hypothenar eminence. Understanding the specific neurological deficits associated with nerve injuries is crucial in clinical practice, especially in fields like nursing where patient assessments and interventions rely heavily on this knowledge. Nurses need to be able to recognize and differentiate between various nerve injuries to provide appropriate care and rehabilitation for patients with neurological conditions.

Question 4 of 5

The following tests are routine in the management of an epileptic on carbamazepine:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the management of an epileptic patient on carbamazepine, routine monitoring of liver function tests (Option C) is essential. Carbamazepine can cause hepatotoxicity, making regular liver function tests crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on. Monitoring liver function helps prevent serious complications and allows for timely intervention if needed. Blood counts (Option A) are not typically routine tests in the management of carbamazepine therapy unless there are specific indications related to the drug or the patient's condition. Serum levels (Option B) of carbamazepine are important to monitor for therapeutic drug levels, but they are not considered routine tests for overall management compared to liver function tests. Renal function tests (Option D) are also important in some cases, but they are not as directly associated with carbamazepine therapy as liver function tests are. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the need for routine monitoring of specific laboratory tests in patients on certain medications is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers. This knowledge helps ensure safe and effective medication management, early detection of potential adverse effects, and optimal patient outcomes. Regular education and updates on monitoring protocols for commonly used medications like carbamazepine are essential for nursing practice.

Question 5 of 5

The best test to confirm the diagnosis of tuberculosis is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of diagnosing tuberculosis, the best test to confirm the diagnosis is a sputum culture (Option B). A sputum culture directly identifies the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis, by culturing the bacteria from a sputum sample. This method provides a definitive diagnosis and allows for drug susceptibility testing to guide appropriate treatment. Chest X-ray (Option A) can show characteristic findings suggestive of tuberculosis, such as infiltrates or cavities in the lungs, but it cannot confirm the presence of the bacteria. Skin tests (Option C), like the tuberculin skin test (TST) or Mantoux test, indicate exposure to tuberculosis but do not differentiate between active and latent infection. Blood cultures (Option D) are not typically used to diagnose tuberculosis. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing a sputum culture over other diagnostic tests is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric populations where accurate and timely diagnosis is vital. Teaching about the specificity and sensitivity of different tests in tuberculosis diagnosis helps students and practitioners make informed clinical decisions to provide effective patient care.

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