ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Disinfection with chemicals acting on cell surface:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenols. Phenols act on the cell surface by disrupting cell membranes and denaturing proteins, leading to cell death. Soaps (A) work by lifting dirt and microbes off surfaces, not directly acting on cell surfaces. Amines (C) are typically used as disinfectants targeting specific enzymes in microbes, not cell surfaces. Polymyxin (D) is an antibiotic that works by disrupting cell membranes internally, not on the cell surface.
Question 2 of 9
The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria†is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is commonly known as "flesh-eating bacteria" due to its ability to cause severe tissue destruction and necrotizing fasciitis. Streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins that break down skin and muscle tissues. Staphylococcus aureus (A) can cause skin infections but is not typically associated with necrotizing fasciitis. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is a normal skin flora and rarely causes infections. Propionibacterium acnes (D) is associated with acne and not known for causing tissue destruction. Therefore, the correct choice is Streptococcus pyogenes due to its unique ability to cause severe tissue damage and necrotizing fasciitis.
Question 3 of 9
After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of pathogenicity are the clinic presentations of this disease connected with?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Exotoxin. Botulism is caused by the exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. The symptoms described - diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness - are all consistent with botulism due to the neurotoxic effects of the exotoxin. The exotoxin interferes with neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis and the symptoms mentioned. The other choices (B, C, D, E) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the pathogenic mechanism of botulism and do not explain the specific clinical manifestations observed in this case.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacteria are associated with causing foodborne infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica) are known to cause foodborne infections. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, E. coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, and Salmonella enterica is a common cause of food poisoning. Each bacterium has specific mechanisms that result in foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacterium mentioned is associated with causing foodborne infections, making them collectively the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing leprosy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease. Mycobacterium leprae specifically targets the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. It is an acid-fast bacterium with a slow growth rate, making it difficult to culture in the laboratory. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice A) is responsible for various infections such as strep throat, Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) causes gonorrhea, and Escherichia coli (choice D) is commonly found in the gut and can lead to various infections but not leprosy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
Question 7 of 9
What is the function of bacterial pili?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The function of bacterial pili is to aid in adhesion. Pili are hair-like structures on the bacterial surface that help the bacteria attach to surfaces or other cells. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. Pili do not provide motility, as that is typically done by flagella. Bacteria form spores for survival under harsh conditions, and protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes, not pili. Thus, the correct answer is B, aiding in adhesion.
Question 8 of 9
The mold that produces penicillin is an example of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: amensalism. Penicillin mold produces a substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria, but it does not benefit nor harm the bacteria directly. This relationship is characterized by one organism (the mold) negatively affecting another (the bacteria) without any benefit or harm to itself. In parasitism (A), one organism benefits at the expense of another. In mutualism (B), both organisms benefit from the relationship. In commensalism (C), one organism benefits while the other is unaffected. Therefore, the mold producing penicillin fits the definition of amensalism.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.