ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Dipstick testing of an older adult patients urine indicates the presence of protein. Which of the following statements is true of this assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Protein in urine can indicate renal issues, so further testing like urine protein/creatinine ratio is needed. 2. Proteinuria doesn't directly relate to urinary incontinence. 3. The finding is not related to age or gender, ruling out options B and D. 4. Option A is correct as it emphasizes the need for additional testing to confirm the presence and significance of protein in urine.
Question 2 of 5
During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans. This can lead to problems with hygiene and urination. Epispadias (B) is a congenital malformation where the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra, causing difficulty with urination. Peyronie disease (D) is the development of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, leading to curvature during erection. In this case, the fixed and tight foreskin indicates phimosis.
Question 3 of 5
Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid acts as a beta-lactamase inhibitor, protecting amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamase enzymes produced by bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not prevent renal excretion of amoxicillin, destroy bacteria directly, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin. The primary purpose of combining clavulanic acid with amoxicillin is to enhance amoxicillin's effectiveness by preventing its degradation by bacterial enzymes.
Question 4 of 5
A 28 year old male patient present with a painless sore in his penis and blood * test confirms Treponema pallidum. Which of the following agent is the treatment of choice that can be given as a single dose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.
Question 5 of 5
The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is : *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Oral ampicillin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its impact on the gut flora. This side effect is a result of the antibiotic's mechanism of action and is well-documented in clinical practice. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as loose bowel movements, constipation, and urticaria are not typically associated with oral ampicillin use.