Digoxin is a drug that has been used to treat systolic heart failure for over 200 years. It has a therapeutic index value of 2. How many daily doses of digoxin will the average patient have to take at one time to have a 50:50 chance of developing toxic side effects?

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Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Digoxin is a drug that has been used to treat systolic heart failure for over 200 years. It has a therapeutic index value of 2. How many daily doses of digoxin will the average patient have to take at one time to have a 50:50 chance of developing toxic side effects?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic index value of 2 indicates that the toxic dose is 2 times the effective dose. To have a 50% chance of developing toxic side effects, the patient would need to take a dose that is half of the toxic dose. This means the patient would need to take 1/2 of the toxic dose at each administration. Since the therapeutic index is 2, the patient would need to divide the toxic dose into 2 equal parts, which results in 2 doses. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Two doses. Summary: A: Incorrect - Taking one dose would exceed the therapeutic index and increase the risk of toxic side effects. C: Incorrect - Not providing a clear answer. D: Incorrect - Incomplete option.

Question 2 of 5

A 25-year-old man suffering from hay fever started treatment with an over-the-counter antihistamine preparation. Which of the following statements best explains the molecular mechanism of action of the prescribed drug to treat this patient's hay fever?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reversible binding to H1 receptors. Antihistamines work by competitively binding to H1 receptors, blocking the action of histamine. This reversible binding prevents histamine from exerting its effects, such as inflammation and itching. Choice B is incorrect because irreversible binding would lead to prolonged effects and potential toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as H2 receptors are targeted by a different class of drugs used for conditions like acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect for the same reason as choice B.

Question 3 of 5

A43-year-old woman complained to her physician of annoying daytime sleepiness. The woman, who was treated in the past with several drugs for generalized anxiety, had been receiving diazepam for the past month. One week ago, she started taking an over-the-counter preparation for seasonal allergic rhinitis. Which of the following drugs most likely precipitated the patient's daytime sleepiness?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Diphenhydramine) is correct: 1. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine known for causing sedation. 2. The patient was experiencing daytime sleepiness, a common side effect of diphenhydramine. 3. The combination with diazepam (a sedative) likely potentiated the sedative effects. 4. Loratadine (choice A) is a non-sedating antihistamine. 5. Prednisone (choice B) is a corticosteroid and not typically associated with sedation. 6. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative-hypnotic used for insomnia but not taken by the patient.

Question 4 of 5

The reasons determining bioavailability are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bioavailability depends on absorption extent and hepatic first-pass metabolism (Choice C), where liver metabolism reduces drug availability post-oral administration. Blood rheology (Choice A) is unrelated, dose/intakes (Choice B) are factors but not primary, and filtration (Choice D) affects excretion.

Question 5 of 5

The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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