Digoxin has a half-life of approximately 40 hours if renal function is normal. How long will it take to reach >90 per cent of the steady state plasma concentration?

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Question 1 of 5

Digoxin has a half-life of approximately 40 hours if renal function is normal. How long will it take to reach >90 per cent of the steady state plasma concentration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Steady-state concentration is reached after 4-5 half-lives, when drug input equals output. Digoxin's half-life is 40 hours (1.67 days). Four half-lives is 4 × 40 = 160 hours (6.67 days), and five is 200 hours (8.33 days). Over 90% steady state occurs around 4 half-lives, roughly 6-7 days. Two days (48 hours) is only ~1.2 half-lives, far too short. Ten days (~6 half-lives) exceeds 90%, but 7 days (~4.2 half-lives) aligns with >90% (e.g., 94% at 4 half-lives). Fourteen or 18 days overshoot unnecessarily. Seven days balances precision and practicality, guiding digoxin dosing timelines in heart failure or arrhythmias.

Question 2 of 5

A client has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and hypertension. Which medication could the client safely receive for hypertension?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Terazosin, an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker, treats both hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels and the prostate, lowering blood pressure and easing urinary symptoms. Sildenafil, used for erectile dysfunction, doesn't address hypertension or BPH and may cause hypotension, making it unsuitable here. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, shrinks the prostate for BPH but has no effect on blood pressure, missing the dual need. Tamsulosin, another alpha-1 blocker, relieves BPH symptoms but isn't typically used for routine hypertension management and risks severe hypotension. Terazosin's dual action makes it uniquely safe and effective, addressing both conditions without exacerbating either, unlike the others, which lack hypertensive benefits or pose risks in this context.

Question 3 of 5

The physician ordered a loading dose of medication for the patient; it is to be followed by a lower dose. When the patient receives the lower dose, she says to the nurse, 'I think my doctor made a mistake; my medication dose is too low.' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A loading dose rapidly achieves therapeutic levels, followed by a lower maintenance dose, a standard approach explained clearly here. Half-life isn't shortened-it's about concentration. ‘Always' oversimplifies. Side effect reduction isn't the goal-efficacy is. The larger initial dose's purpose reassures the patient, aligning with pharmacokinetic principles for quick action.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse working in an obstetric practice should consider which fact when discussing medication use with pregnant patients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pregnancy boosts lung perfusion, increasing inhaled drug absorption (e.g., anesthetics), a pharmacokinetic shift to note. Excretion may slow later, but not universally. Oral absorption isn't broadly reduced-GI changes vary. Avoiding all drugs is impractical-some conditions need treatment. Inhaled absorption informs safe use.

Question 5 of 5

The traditionally prescribed drug types used to treat attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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