ATI RN
Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Digitalis preparations increase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: strength of contraction. Digitalis preparations, such as digoxin, increase the strength of myocardial contraction by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels. This results in a positive inotropic effect, enhancing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. The other choices are incorrect because digitalis preparations do not affect the rate of contraction (choice A), conduction velocity (choice C), or kidney function (choice D).
Question 2 of 5
Symptoms of mitral stenosis are primarily due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fusion of the valve leaflets. Mitral stenosis is characterized by the narrowing of the mitral valve orifice, primarily caused by fusion of the valve leaflets. This fusion restricts the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle, leading to symptoms such as dyspnea, fatigue, and palpitations. Development of a calcium plate across the orifice (A) is seen in aortic stenosis, not mitral stenosis. Tight ventricular outflow obstruction (C) is characteristic of conditions like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not mitral stenosis. Lengthening of the chordae tendineae (D) is not a primary cause of mitral stenosis symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is given an order to give the client milrinone (Primacor). For what reason might this drug be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: For congestive heart failure. Milrinone is a type of inotropic agent used to treat congestive heart failure by increasing cardiac contractility and improving cardiac output. It is not typically used for hypertension (B), as there are more appropriate medications available. It is also not indicated for cardiac arrhythmias (C) or bradycardia (D), as its primary action is to improve cardiac function in heart failure patients.
Question 4 of 5
Adverse reactions from non-cardio-selective beta blockers include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increases heart rate. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers block beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, leading to unopposed alpha receptor activity, which can result in increased heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because beta blockers typically lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as beta blockers can cause sinus bradycardia, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because non-cardio-selective beta blockers can exacerbate asthma due to blocking beta-2 receptors, not because they increase heart rate.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for an arrhythmia. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat what type of arrhythmia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers slow down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, which can help stabilize the heart rate in atrial arrhythmias like atrial flutter. Ventricular tachycardia (B) is usually treated with antiarrhythmic drugs or electrical cardioversion. Frequent PVCs (C) are commonly managed by beta-blockers. Sinus bradycardia (D) is a condition of slowed heart rate that is typically not treated with calcium channel blockers. In this case, the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers aligns with the treatment goal for atrial flutter, making it the correct choice.