Degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures are referred as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: cytopathic effect. When viruses infect cell cultures, they induce degenerative changes known as cytopathic effects, which include cell shrinkage, rounding, detachment, and cell death. This term specifically refers to the damage caused by viral replication within the cells. A: Cytolytic effect refers to the destruction of cells by viruses, which is a more specific type of cytopathic effect involving cell lysis. C: Cytotoxic effect typically refers to the toxic effects of substances on cells, not specifically related to viral propagation. D: The statement that all three answers are correct is incorrect as only option B accurately describes the degenerative changes resulting from viral propagation in infected cell cultures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wright's agglutination reaction. For brucellosis diagnosis, this test detects antibodies against Brucella species. Wright's test specifically targets agglutinins, which are produced in response to Brucella infection. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Widal's test is used for typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi. C: Ascoli's test is for pneumococcal infections. D: Weigl's test is used for typhus fever caused by Rickettsia prowazekii.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods: E. coli is a Gram-negative rod bacterium. 2. Fermented lactose: E. coli is known to ferment lactose. 3. Common cause of diarrhea: E. coli is a common causative agent of infectious diarrhea. Summary: B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with lactose fermentation. C: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not known for lactose fermentation. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of infectious diarrhea and does not typically ferment lactose.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the main target of the toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae is the epithelial cells of the small intestine. This toxin, known as cholera toxin, binds to the surface of these cells and disrupts their normal function, leading to the characteristic watery diarrhea seen in cholera. The other choices are incorrect because macrophages are not the main target, RBCs are not directly affected by the toxin, and the stomach epithelial cells are not specifically targeted by Vibrio cholerae toxin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: after repeated exposure for days. Subacute toxic effects typically manifest after a period of time that is longer than immediate (A) or acute (B) effects but shorter than chronic effects (D). This duration of days aligns with the definition of subacute, which refers to effects that occur gradually over a relatively short time frame. It is important to differentiate between the timing of toxic effects to accurately assess the potential harm caused by a substance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the characteristic time frame associated with subacute toxic effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Ziehl-Neelsen staining is a type of acid-fast staining used to detect acid-resistant bacteria like Mycobacterium species. Step 2: Acid-resistant bacteria have a high lipid content in their cell walls, making them resist decolorization with acid-alcohol. Step 3: Mycobacterium species, such as M. tuberculosis and M. leprae, are examples of acid-resistant bacteria. Step 4: Spores are not typically stained using Ziehl-Neelsen staining, making choice B incorrect. Step 5: Metachromatic bodies are stained using specific techniques like Albert's stain, not Ziehl-Neelsen staining, making choice C incorrect. Summary: Ziehl-Neelsen staining is specifically used for acid-resistant bacteria detection, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of Ziehl-Neelsen staining. Choice D is incorrect as Ziehl

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments. In aerobic conditions, they use oxygen for energy production, while in anaerobic conditions, they can switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration. A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen to survive and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and only thrive in anaerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to survive and cannot thrive in fully aerobic or anaerobic conditions.