Deep transverse arrest is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis). Summary: - Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. - Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function. - Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to inability to eat or retain feeds. It is associated with significant weight loss and dehydration. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Weight gain control is not the primary concern when hyperemesis gravidarum is present. C: Morning sickness typically does not cause severe inability to eat or retain feeds. D: Preeclampsia is a separate condition characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, not directly related to feeding difficulties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turtle sign. This occurs when the fetal head retracts against the perineum during delivery, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This indicates fetal shoulder dystocia, a serious complication. Gaskin sign (A) refers to the position of the mother during labor. Klumpke sign (C) is related to brachial plexus injuries during delivery. Chignon sign (D) is not a recognized term in obstetrics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct diagnostic test for the patient is a barium enema. This test is commonly used to evaluate the colon and rectum for conditions such as colonic obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease, or colorectal cancer. In this case, the patient's presentation of left lower quadrant pain with a history of constipation and variable bowel habits suggests a possible colonic obstruction, which can be visualized through a barium enema. A CT scan with contrast may be helpful in some cases but may not provide as clear a view of the colon as a barium enema. CBC with WBC differential is a general blood test and would not directly aid in diagnosing colonic issues. Colonoscopy, while a valuable tool for evaluating the colon, may not be suitable for this patient initially due to the acute nature of the presentation and the need to first rule out a potential obstruction.