Deep transverse arrest is

Questions 64

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Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Deep transverse arrest is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is NOT a source of pain in labour?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Uterine contractions are a physiological process in labor causing pain due to muscle contractions. Step 2: Cervical dilatation involves the opening of the cervix, which can cause pain and discomfort. Step 3: Pelvic floor stretching occurs as the baby moves through the birth canal, leading to pain. Step 4: Socio-cultural norms do not directly cause physical pain in labor, making choice B the correct answer. Other choices directly relate to physical processes causing pain.

Question 3 of 9

K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery. 2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation. 3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem. B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication. D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.

Question 4 of 9

The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.

Question 5 of 9

The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.

Question 6 of 9

In breech delivery, the midwife is advised to keep her hands off the breech as it progressively descends so as to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent excessive traction being applied. This is because in a breech delivery, excessive traction can lead to complications such as fetal injuries or umbilical cord prolapse. The midwife should avoid pulling on the baby's legs or body to prevent undue stress on the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Ascertain the fetal wellbeing in utero - this is typically done through other means such as fetal monitoring. B: Allow enough room for the fetus to pass - this should be done by ensuring proper positioning and allowing natural descent. C: Allow gravitating descent of the fetus - this is not a recommended practice as it can cause complications.

Question 7 of 9

The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.

Question 8 of 9

A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.

Question 9 of 9

Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to hypergastrinemia and increased acid secretion. However, due to a negative feedback mechanism, chronic exposure to high gastrin levels can cause downregulation of gastrin receptors on parietal cells, leading to decreased acid secretion. Therefore, in gastrinoma, despite high gastrin levels, acid secretion may be reduced due to this negative feedback loop. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion in gastrinoma.

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