Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest occurs when the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same, leading to a failure of descent of the fetal head through the pelvis. This alignment issue hinders the progress of labor despite adequate contractions. A: Incorrect. Flexion being well maintained is not a defining characteristic of deep transverse arrest. B: Incorrect. While strong uterine contractions can contribute to labor challenges, deep transverse arrest is specifically related to the alignment of the fetal head. C: Incorrect. The curvature of the sacrum is not directly related to deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - All of the above. Braxton Hicks contractions can be differentiated from true labor by timing, intensity, and duration. Timing refers to the regularity of contractions, intensity relates to the strength of contractions, and duration indicates how long contractions last. By considering all three factors together, one can determine whether contractions are Braxton Hicks (practice contractions) or true labor contractions. Choices A, B, and C alone provide only partial information, which may lead to misinterpretation. Therefore, choosing all three factors collectively (D) is essential for accurate differentiation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to inability to eat or retain feeds. It is associated with significant weight loss and dehydration. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Weight gain control is not the primary concern when hyperemesis gravidarum is present. C: Morning sickness typically does not cause severe inability to eat or retain feeds. D: Preeclampsia is a separate condition characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, not directly related to feeding difficulties.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.