Deep transverse arrest is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest occurs when the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same, leading to a failure of descent of the fetal head through the pelvis. This alignment issue hinders the progress of labor despite adequate contractions. A: Incorrect. Flexion being well maintained is not a defining characteristic of deep transverse arrest. B: Incorrect. While strong uterine contractions can contribute to labor challenges, deep transverse arrest is specifically related to the alignment of the fetal head. C: Incorrect. The curvature of the sacrum is not directly related to deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process. B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing. C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated. D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because living wills are typically not honored for terminally ill patients with impaired cognition. Firstly, living wills require the patient to be of sound mind to make decisions. Secondly, in the case of a cognitively impaired patient, their ability to express their wishes and understand the implications may be compromised. Therefore, healthcare providers may not be able to honor the living will accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because A) competency can be determined by healthcare professionals, B) impaired cognition can lead to incompetence, and D) informed consent requires the patient to understand the decision-making process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klumpke's palsy. Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy, characterized by paralysis of the lower arm and hand muscles. This occurs due to damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus. Erb's palsy (choice A) involves C5 & C6 nerve roots, causing weakness in the shoulder and upper arm. Phrenic injury (choice C) affects the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties. Radial palsy (choice D) results from damage to the radial nerve, causing wrist drop and weakness in forearm muscles. Klumpke's palsy specifically matches the description of injury to nerve roots C8 & T1.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing. 2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris. 3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Other choices are incorrect: A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration. B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies. D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.