ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Decreasing level of consciousness is a symptom of which of the following physiological phenomena?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased ICP. Decreasing level of consciousness is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to the compression of the brain. As ICP rises, it impairs cerebral perfusion leading to altered mental status. Parasympathetic response (B) and sympathetic response (C) are related to autonomic nervous system functions, not consciousness. Increased cerebral blood flow (D) might lead to conditions like hyperemia but does not directly cause a decreased level of consciousness.
Question 2 of 9
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.
Question 3 of 9
For a client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on the client actively engaging in reducing tension, which is essential in managing anxiety. This outcome is measurable and client-centered. A: Verbalizing feelings is important, but it does not necessarily lead to reduction in anxiety. B: Not guessing prognosis is helpful, but it does not address the active management of anxiety. D: Stopping seeking information may not be beneficial as knowledge can empower the client in coping with the diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. This is a common AIDS-related cancer caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) in immunosuppressed individuals. It presents as purplish lesions on the skin and mucous membranes. Squamous cell carcinoma (A) is not specific to AIDS. Leukemia (B) and Multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Kaposi’s sarcoma is the hallmark cancer seen in AIDS patients due to their weakened immune system.
Question 5 of 9
20-year old Mr. Ang fell off from his horse, and sustained a lft hip fracture. Buck’s extension traction is applied. The following statements are true about Buck’s extension traction except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children due to their growing bones. Instead, it is used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - A: Correct - Buck's extension traction is indeed used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - B: Correct - Buck's extension traction is applied by an orthopedic surgeon under aseptic conditions using wires and pins. - C: Correct - The pulling force in Buck's extension traction is indeed transmitted to the musculoskeletal structures. Therefore, the incorrect option is D as Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children.
Question 6 of 9
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement. After hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. Patients will need lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal body functions. This is crucial for regulating metabolism, growth, reproduction, and stress response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because abnormal distribution of body hair, increased fluid intake, and repeat surgical procedures are not typically associated with hypophysectomy. It is essential to focus on the long-term management of hormone replacement therapy to ensure the patient's overall health and well-being.
Question 7 of 9
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.
Question 8 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.
Question 9 of 9
Which gauge IV cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice is A: 18 gauge IV cannula for blood transfusion. Larger gauge allows for faster flow rate, crucial for transfusions to prevent clotting. 24, 22, and 28 gauge cannulas are too small for adequate blood flow, leading to potential complications like hemolysis or slowed infusion.