ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Deaths have occurred when potassium chloride has been used incorrectly to flush a lock or central venous catheter. Which of the ff precautions should a nurse take to minimize this risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reading labels carefully on vials containing flush solutions for locks is crucial to ensure the correct solution is being used. Step 2: Potassium chloride should not be used to flush locks as it can be fatal if administered incorrectly. Step 3: By carefully reading labels, the nurse can verify that the correct solution is being used, thus minimizing the risk of using potassium chloride. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as using a dilute form of potassium chloride does not address the issue of incorrect administration. - Choice B is incorrect as warming the solution does not prevent the risk associated with using potassium chloride. - Choice D is incorrect as replacing locks does not address the root cause of the issue, which is improper administration.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Amy teaches a group of nursing students about the factors that cuses biliary cirrhosis. Which factor is associated with the condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction. Biliary cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver due to long-term damage to the bile ducts. Chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction can lead to the build-up of bile in the liver, causing damage over time. Acute viral hepatitis (choice A) typically does not directly cause biliary cirrhosis. Alcohol hepatotoxicity (choice B) is more commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease rather than biliary cirrhosis. Hepatic failure with prolonged venous hepatic congestion (choice D) may lead to liver cirrhosis, but it is not specific to biliary cirrhosis.
Question 3 of 9
Mr Santos is placed on seizure precaution. Which of the following would be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain his oral temperature. Seizure precautions typically include avoiding putting objects in the mouth to prevent injury during a seizure. Taking an oral temperature involves placing an object in the mouth, which could pose a risk if a seizure occurs. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindicated as they do not directly involve potential risks during a seizure. Allowing the patient to wear his own clothing, encouraging personal hygiene, and promoting mobility are safe practices that do not increase the risk of harm during a seizure.
Question 4 of 9
A client with serum glucose level of 618mg/dl is admitted to the facility. He’s awake and oriented, has hot dry skin, and has the following vital signs: temperature of 100.6F (38.1C), heart rate of 116 beats/min, and blood pressure of 108/70mHg. Based on these assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis take highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration." The client's high serum glucose level of 618mg/dl indicates severe hyperglycemia, leading to dehydration. The client's hot, dry skin and elevated temperature can be signs of dehydration, impacting the body's ability to regulate temperature. Dehydration can also affect other vital signs, contributing to the elevated heart rate and low blood pressure. Addressing ineffective thermoregulation is crucial as it can lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because addressing dehydration and ineffective thermoregulation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as heatstroke or hypothermia. Deficient volume, decreased cardiac output, and imbalanced nutrition are important but not as urgent in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client asks the nurse about the four-point gait when partial weight bearing is permitted. What is the nurse’s BEST response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the four-point gait with partial weight bearing, the client should move the right crutch ahead first to provide support and stability, followed by the left foot. This sequence ensures proper weight distribution and balance. Moving both crutches together (B) may compromise stability. Moving the left crutch and right foot together (C) may cause uneven weight distribution. Moving both crutches and weaker leg together (D) may not provide adequate support for the weaker leg.
Question 6 of 9
A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a patient about self-administering subcutaneous injections. The patient demonstrates the self-injection. Which type of indicator did the nurse evaluate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health behavior. Evaluating the patient's demonstration of self-injection assesses their ability to perform a specific health-related action. This choice focuses on the patient's actions and behaviors related to their health, aligning with the scenario provided. Choice A: Health status is incorrect because it refers to the patient's current physical condition, not their ability to perform a specific health action. Choice C: Psychological self-control is incorrect as it pertains to the patient's ability to regulate their emotions and impulses, not their ability to self-administer injections. Choice D: Health service utilization is incorrect as it relates to the frequency and pattern of healthcare services used by the patient, not their ability to perform a specific health behavior.
Question 8 of 9
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fine needle aspiration. This is because fine needle aspiration involves extracting cells from the lump in the breast for examination under a microscope to determine if they are cancerous. This procedure provides a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer. Breast self-examination (A) is a screening tool for detecting lumps but does not confirm a diagnosis. Mammography (C) is used for screening and detecting abnormalities but requires further testing for confirmation. Chest x-ray (D) is not useful for diagnosing breast cancer.