ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Deaths have occurred when potassium chloride has been used incorrectly to flush a lock or central venous catheter. Which of the ff precautions should a nurse take to minimize this risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reading labels carefully on vials containing flush solutions for locks is crucial to ensure the correct solution is being used. Step 2: Potassium chloride should not be used to flush locks as it can be fatal if administered incorrectly. Step 3: By carefully reading labels, the nurse can verify that the correct solution is being used, thus minimizing the risk of using potassium chloride. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as using a dilute form of potassium chloride does not address the issue of incorrect administration. - Choice B is incorrect as warming the solution does not prevent the risk associated with using potassium chloride. - Choice D is incorrect as replacing locks does not address the root cause of the issue, which is improper administration.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has developed a plan of care with nursing interventions designed to meet specific client outcomes. The outcomes are not met by the time specified in the plan. What should the nurse do now in terms of evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Make recommendations for revising the plan of care. When client outcomes are not met within the specified time frame, the nurse should reassess the plan of care to identify any potential reasons for the lack of progress. By making recommendations for revising the plan of care, the nurse can adjust interventions to better align with the client's needs and facilitate goal achievement. Continuing to follow the written plan of care (choice A) without modification may not address the underlying issues preventing goal attainment. Asking another health care professional to design a plan of care (choice C) may not be necessary if the nurse can assess and revise the current plan. Stating 'goal will be met at a later date' (choice D) does not address the need for immediate action to reassess and modify the plan for better outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who was walking in the woods disturbed a beehive, was stung, and was taken to the emergency department immediately due to allergies to bee stings. Which of the ff. symptoms would the nurse expect to see upon admission of this patient? i.Pallor around the sting bites iv. Retinal hemorrhage ii.Numbness and tingling in the extremities v. Tachycardia iii.Respiratory stridor vi. Dyspnea
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4, 5, 2006. Upon admission, a patient with allergies to bee stings may exhibit tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to an allergic reaction. Respiratory stridor (high-pitched wheezing) may occur as a sign of airway inflammation. Retinal hemorrhage and dyspnea (difficulty breathing) are not typically associated with bee sting allergies. Pallor and numbness/tingling are also not common symptoms in this scenario. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
The physician orders local application of epinephrine 1:1000 solution to treat a nosebleed. The patient asks how this will help. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Epinephrine, when applied locally, constricts blood vessels, reducing blood flow and slowing down bleeding. This vasoconstrictive effect helps control nosebleeds effectively. Choice A is incorrect because although epinephrine can raise blood pressure, it is not the primary mechanism for treating nosebleeds. Choice B is incorrect as epinephrine's bronchodilation effect is not relevant in this context. Choice C is incorrect as while promoting blood clotting is beneficial, epinephrine primarily acts by vasoconstriction to control bleeding.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff is the effect of a decrease in the number of lymphocytes with age?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased resistance to infection. Lymphocytes are a crucial part of the immune system, responsible for fighting off infections. A decrease in the number of lymphocytes with age leads to a weakened immune response, making individuals more susceptible to infections. - Choice B: Cognitive problems, is not directly related to lymphocyte levels. - Choice C: Urinary incontinence, is not a typical effect of decreased lymphocytes. - Choice D: Decrease in various blood components, is too broad and not specific to the role of lymphocytes in immunity.
Question 7 of 9
An adult suffered 2nd and third degree burns over 20% of hid body 2 days ago. What is the best way to assess the client’s fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections. B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system. C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility. D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff vitamins does a client lack if there is a problem with the absorption of calcium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.