Dawn is a 55-year-old woman who comes in today for her yearly wellness examination. You carefully perform the rectal examination in the lithotomy position and feel a mass against the bowel wall which is firm and immobile. Which of the following is most likely?

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Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

Dawn is a 55-year-old woman who comes in today for her yearly wellness examination. You carefully perform the rectal examination in the lithotomy position and feel a mass against the bowel wall which is firm and immobile. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a firm and immobile mass felt against the bowel wall during a rectal examination is concerning for a potential malignancy, such as colon cancer. Other conditions such as hemorrhoids or anal fissures are typically not associated with a mass that is firm and immobile. The "Valve of Houston" is a term that does not pertain to this scenario and is not a recognized medical entity. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the given information is colon cancer, and further evaluation such as a colonoscopy would be warranted for definitive diagnosis and management.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a "red flag" regarding patients presenting with headache?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A "red flag" regarding patients presenting with a headache is their age being over 50. This is because new-onset or persistent headaches in individuals over 50 may raise concerns about underlying serious conditions such as temporal arteritis, brain tumor, or other vascular issues. It is important to thoroughly evaluate and consider these possibilities in older patients with headaches to ensure appropriate management and timely intervention.

Question 3 of 5

A 21-year-old receptionist comes to your clinic, complaining of frequent diarrhea. She states that the stools are very loose and there is some cramping beforehand. She states this has occurred on and off since she was in high school. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or blood in her stool. Occasionally she has periods of constipation, but that is rare. She thinks the diarrhea is much worse when she is nervous. Her past medical history is not significant. She is single and a junior in college majoring in accounting. She smokes when she drinks alcohol but denies using any illegal drugs. Both of her parents are healthy. Her entire physical examination is unremarkable. What is most likely the etiology of her diarrhea?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of frequent loose stools with cramping, occurring since high school and worsening during periods of nervousness, along with occasional constipation, is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea, constipation, or both) without any evidence of organic disease. The absence of systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or blood in the stool, as well as normal physical examination findings, also support the diagnosis of IBS in this case. This condition is often triggered or exacerbated by stress or anxiety. Monitoring stress levels, dietary modifications, and possibly prescription medications may help manage IBS symptoms in this patient.

Question 4 of 5

You note that a patient has anisocoria on examination. Pathologic causes of this include which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Anisocoria refers to a condition where the pupils are of unequal size. Pathologic causes of anisocoria can include conditions such as Horner's syndrome. Horner's syndrome is a rare disorder caused by damage to the sympathetic nerves of the face and eye. Symptoms can include a constricted pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), and decreased sweating in the affected area. This results in anisocoria, where the affected pupil is smaller than the unaffected pupil. Other options listed (B-D) do not typically lead to pathologic anisocoria.

Question 5 of 5

Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) normally located?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The point of maximal impulse (PMI), also known as the apical impulse, is the point where the left ventricle is closest to the chest wall. Normally, the PMI is located in the left 5th intercostal space, around 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum. This area corresponds to the apex of the heart. By palpating the PMI, healthcare providers can assess the size, strength, and regularity of the heart's contractions, which can provide important diagnostic information about cardiac health. Locating the PMI accurately is essential for physical examination and diagnosis of cardiac conditions.

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